Category: CBSE Sample Papers

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question I should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each I question should not exceed 150-200 word
• Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
• Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
(Short Answer Type Questions) (3 marks each)

Question 1.
Describe the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly of India. [3]
Answer :
Role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly of India:

1. He served as Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
2. He plead for the abolition of untouchability
3. He wanted “a strong and united Centre’
4. He asked for equal rights.
5. He was in favour of Parliamentary Democracy
6. Any other relevant point

Question 2.
Critically analyse the Fifth Report which was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813. [3]
OR
Examine the policies adopted by the British towards Paharias during 18th century.
Answer:
The fifth Report of 1813 which was submitted to British Parliament:

1. It was the fifth series of report on the administration and activities of the East India Company in India.
2. It ran into 1002 pages of which over 800 pages were appendices that reproduced petitions of zamindars and riots, reports of collectors and districts.
3. It contained information on company’s misrule and maladministration.
4. Many British traders wanted a share in Company’s trade in India and emphasised for openness for British manufacturers in India
5. Any other relevant point.

OR

Policies adopted by the British towards Paharias during 18th century.

1. British adopted policy of extermination.
2. British proposed policy of pacification with Paharia chiefs to ensure proper conduct.
3. Paharia went into mountains and deep forests and continued their war against outsiders
4. Many Paharia chiefs who accepted allowances came to be perceived as subordinate employees or stipendiary chiefs so they lost their authority within the community.
5. Any other relevant point

Question 3.
‘Rumours and Prophecies played a part in moving people to action’. Explain the statement in the context of the Revolt of 1857. [3]
Answer:
Rumours and Prophecies in the Revolt of 1857:

1. There was a rumour that the new cartridges were greased with the fat of cows and pigs which would pollute their castes and religion.
2. The rumours about the British trying to destroy the religion of Indians by mixing the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour
3. There was fear and suspicion that the British wanted to convert Indians to Christianity.
4. There were rumours that British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour that was sold in the market.
5. Prophecy: The response to the call for action was reinforced by the prophecy that the British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey, on 23 June, 1857.
6.  Any other relevant point.

Question 4.
Why have many scholars written the months after Independence as being Gandhiji’s “finest hours? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Months after Independence as being Gandhiji’s “finest hours:

1. He pleads for cooperation and communal harmony.
2. He urged that the two parts respect and befriend one another.
3. He tried to build a spirit of mutual trust and confidence between the communities.
4. He was worried for the displaced people in India and Pakistan.
5. Any other relevant point.

Section – B
(Long Answer Type Questions) (6 marks each)

Question 5.
Describe the role of any six prominent leaders of northern India who fought against the British in the Revolt of 1857. [6]
Answer:
Role of prominent leaders of the Revolt of 1857.

1. In Kanpur, Nana Sahib, the successor of Peshwa Baji Rao II became the leader of the revolt.
2. In Jhansi, Rani Lakshmi Bai assumed the leadership of the uprising.
3. In Arrah in Bihar, Kunwar Singh, a local zamindar became leader under popular pressure
4. In Lucknow, Birjis Qadr, the young son of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah became the leader of the revolt against the annexation of the state
5. Gonoo, a tribal cultivator of Singhbhum in Chotanagpur, became a rebel leader of the Kol tribals of the region .
6. Shah Mai organized the villagers of pargana Barout
7. Any other relevant point

Question 6.
Quit India movement was genuinely a mass movement bringing into its ambit hundreds of thousands of ordinary Indians. Elucidate the statement with suitable examples. [6]
OR
‘Gandhiji had mobilized a wider discontentment against the British rule in the Salt Satyagraha.’ Elucidate the statement with suitable examples
Answer:
Quit India movement:

1. Activists organised strikes and protests
2. Students left their colleges to go to jail.
3. Socialists resisted for the cause
4. Women across the country participated
5. Thousands of Indians joined the mass movement
6. Strikes, boycott and picketing
7. Attacks on government buildings or any other visible symbol of colonial authority.
8. Any other relevant point
   To be evaluated as a whole. (Any six points)

OR

Salt Satyagraha:

1. Gandhiji announced a march to break the Salt Law
2. Salt law gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt.
3. The state monopoly on salt was deeply unpopular as in every Indian household salt was indispensable and the people were forbidden for making salt even for domestic use.
4. Gandhiji hoped to mobilize a wider discontent against British rule and started Dandi March. Once he reached Dandi, he broke the salt law.
5. Parallel Salt Marches were organized in other parts of the country.
6. Peasants breached the colonial forest laws which restricted their access to forests.
7. Factory owners went on strike.
8. Lawyers boycotted British courts.
9. Students refused to attend educational Institutions and schools run by government.
10. Indians were arrested.
11. Gandhiji made a plea to the upper caste to serve untouchables.
12. Hindus, Muslims, Parsees and Sikhs were told to unite.
13. Thousands of Volunteers joined for the cause.
14. Many officials resigned from their posts.
15. Gandhiji’s meetings were attended by all sections of people.
16. Women participated in large numbers.
17. Dandi March brought Gandhi to the world attention. The March was covered by European and American press.
18. Salt March made British realized that they would have to devolve some powers to Indians.
19. Any other relevant point To be evaluated as a whole.

Question 7.
Abu’l Fazl describes the ideal of “Sulh- i -Kul (absolute peace) as the cornerstone of Akbar enlightened rule.” Support the statement with few examples. [6]
OR
‘The officer corps of the Mughals were described as bouquet of flowers held together by loyalty to the emperor’. Justify the statements with suitable arguments.
Answer:
Sulh-I-kul policy of Akbar:

1. Different ethnic and religious communities had freedom of expression but on condition that they did not undermine the authority of the state or fight among themselves.
2. He ensured justice and peace.
3. The nobility was comprised of Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs, Deccanis, etc. were given positions and awards based on merit and services.
4. Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage / ]jizya.
5. He gave grants to support and maintain religious buildings.
6. He celebrated festivals like Id, Shab-i-barat and Holi.
7. He invited Jesuit mission for religious discussions.
8. Any other relevant point.

OR

‘The officer cops of the Mughals:

1. The Mughal nobility was comprised of Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs, Deccanis, etc.
2. The Mughal nobility were the main pillars of the Mughal state.
3. The Mughal nobility was chosen from different groups, both religiously and ethnicity to ensure a balance of power between the various groups.
4. They were described as guldasta or a bouquet of flowers in the official chronicles.
5. It signified their unity, held together by loyalty towards the Mughal emperor.
6. All nobles were ranked or were allotted mansabs comprising of zat and sawar
7. The nobles were also required to perform military service for the emperor
8. Any other relevant point.

Section – C
(Case Based Questions) (4 marks each)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow. (1 + 1 + 2 = 4)
The flight of the written word
In Abu’l Fazl’s words:
The written word may embody the wisdom of bygone ages and may become a means to intellectual progress. The spoken word goes to the heart of those who are present to hear it. The written word gives wisdom to those who are near and far. If it was not for the written word, the spoken word would soon die, and no keepsake would be left us from those who are passed away. Superficial observers see in the letter a dark figure, but the deep sighted see in it a lamp of wisdom (chirag-i shinasai).

The written word looks black, notwithstanding the thousand rays with in it, or it is a light with a mole on it that wards off the evil eye. A letter (khat) is the portrait of wisdom; a rough sketch from the realm of ideas; a dark light ushering in day; a black cloud pregnant with knowledge; speaking though dumb; stationary yet travelling; stretched on the sheet, and yet soaring upwards.

Question 8.1
Why were words considered as the lamp of wisdom?
Answer:
According to him the spirit for rational thinking comes from the words.

Question 8.2
How has Abu’l Fazl related words with knowledge?
Answer:
Words have the power to shape and articulate ideas which in turn helps in enhancing knowledge.

Question 8.3
How did Abu’l Fazl refer difference between a ‘common viewer’s observation’ and the ‘observation of a learned person? [2]
Answer:

1. Learned ones can put down their ideas in distinctive forms
2. Learned ones observe things minutely and with vast vision and can express the same with the power of words.

Any other relevant point

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow. (l + l + 2 = 4)
“There cannot be any divided loyalty”
Govind Ballabh Pant argued that in order to become loyal citizens people had to stop focusing only on the community and the self:
For the success of democracy one must train himself in the art of self-discipline. In democracies one should careless for himself and more for others. There cannot be any divided loyalty. All loyalties must exclusively be centred round the State. If in a democracy, you create rival loyalties, or you create a system in which any individual or group, instead of suppressing his extravagance, cares nought for larger or other interests, then democracy is doomed.
Cad, Vol. II Source from Theme-15- ‘Framing the constitution’ Pg419 NCERT

Question 9.1
How did G.B. Pant encourage citizens to make a unified nation? [1]
Answer:
9.1 According to Pant one should care less for himself and more for the nation to make it strong and unified.

Question 9.2
Why did he urge citizens for loyalty towards nation? [1]
Answer:
According to him, for making nation successful, Individual should care less for personal gain and focus more on collective benefit and for the development of the nation in all perspectives.

Question 9.3
How was loyalty considered as the base of social pyramid? [2]
Answer:

1. He suggested that nothing should be done for personal gain which can harm the interest of other person or large section of people
2. This philosophy promotes people centric benefits instead of individual centric.
   Any other relevant point.

Section – D
(Map Skill Base Question) (2 marks each)

Question 10.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol: [1+1=2]
Question (a)
(i)The place where Gandhiji withdrew Non-Cooperation Movement.
OR
(ii) The place where Gandhiji started satyagraha for the indigo planters.

Question (b)
On the same outline map of India, a place related to the centres of the Revolt of 1857 is marked as
Question A.
Identify it and write its name on the line drawn near them.

Answer:
(a) (i) Chaun Chaura
OR
(ii) Champaran

(b) Jhansi

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A ,B,C,D & E
• In section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer type questions.
• In section B question number 4 is Source based question.
• In section C question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer type questions.
• In section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer type questions.
• In section E question number 10 is a Map based question.

Section – A
(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)

Attempt all questions.

Question 1.
Classify the industries on the basis of raw materials.

Question 2.
Who manages joint sector industries?

Question 3.
Give any two examples of mining towns in India.
OR
What environmental problems are being faced at Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area?

Section – B
(Source Based Question) (3 x 1 = 3)

Question 4.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Sustainable Development:
The challenge of sustainable development requires the integration of the quest for economic development with environmental concerns. Traditional methods of resource use result into generating an enormous quantity of waste and it also creates other environmental problems. Hence, sustainable development calls for the protection of resources for future generations. There is an urgent need to conserve resources. Alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are inexhaustible resources.

These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources. In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. The use of scrap is especially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meagre. Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also reduce their consumption. Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced, so that the existing reserve may be used for a longer period.

Attempt all questions.

Question 4.1
Why traditional methods of resource use are not sustainable?

Question 4.2
What is Sustainable Development?

Question 4.3
Name any two non-conventional energy sources?

Section – C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
Which are the different railway gauges in India?

Question 6.
Explain the causes of migration of unskilled migrants from rural to urban areas in India.
OR
Define the term ‘air pollution.’ Explain any two harmful effects of air pollution.

Section – D
(Long Answer Type Questions) (3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
Explain the major factors influencing the location of industries.

Question 8.
‘The Rhine Waterways is the world’s most heavily used inland waterway”. In the light of this statement, examine the significance of this waterway.

Question 9.
Write an essay on Hydel power in India and mention the names of some hydel power projects.
OR
Examine the significance of bio-energy to human Kind in India.

Section – E
(Map Based Question) (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features (Attempt any 5).
(A) City with more than 10 million population.
(B) One in migrating state.
(C) A Copper mine in Jharkhand.
(D) An oil refinery in Gujarat.
(E) Manganese mine in Karnataka.
(F) Northern State connected by North-South Corridor

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A ,B,C,D & E
• In section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer type questions.
• In section B question number 4 is Source based question.
• In section C question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer type questions.
• In section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer type questions.
• In section E question number 10 is a Map based question.

 

Section – A
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)(2 x 3 = 6)

Question 1.
Attempt all questions.How do transport and communication play an important role in the development of industries?

Question 2.
Write the meaning of the Digital Divide.

Question 3.
Why is road transport considered better than rail transport?
OR
Describe any three advantages of pipelines as a means of transport in the world.

Section – B
(Source Based Question)(3 x 1 = 3)

Question 4.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. The workforce is an important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the ‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed’. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. The exchange involves trade, transport and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance.

Tertiary activities, therefore, involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods. They are not directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials. Common examples are the work of a plumber, electrician, technician, launderer, barber, shopkeeper, driver, cashier, teacher, doctor, lawyer and publisher, etc. The main difference betweensecondary activities and tertiary activities is that the expertise provided by services relies more heavily on specialised skills, experience and knowledge of the workers rather than on the production techniques, machinery and factory processes.

Attempt all questions.

Question 4.1
State one feature of the tertiary sector.

Question 4.2
How is the tertiary sector of economic importance to our country

Question 4.3
How is the tertiary sector different from primary and secondary sectors?

Section – C
(Short Answer Type Questions)(2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
Give an account of the distribution of mica in India.

Question 6.
What were the major objectives of developing drought-prone areas?
OR
Explain the importance of the Indira Gandhi Canal for providing water for irrigation in the Canal Command Area.

Section – D
(Long Answer Type Questions)(3 x 5 = 15)

Question 7.
Define ‘manufacturing’. Classify manufacturing industries based on size into three categories. Explain an important characteristic of each category.

Question 8.
“The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of the quest for economic development with environmental concerns.” Comprehend the statement about the development of non-conventional sources of energy in India by giving a suitable example.
OR
Nuclear energy is replacing the conventional sources in India. Do you think it is a viable energy source of energy in future, keeping in view the availability of nuclear minerals in India?

Question 9.
“Land transport plays a vital role in the development of trade and tourism in the world.” Support the statement with suitable examples.

Section – E
(Map Based Question)(1 x 5 =5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features (Attempt any 5).
(A) The state with the highest level of urbanization.
(B) The steel plant was set up in collaboration with UK.
(C) An international airport in Assam.
(D) The major seaport in Odisha.
(E) The headquarters of North-Eastern Railway.
(F) Coal mines situated in Telangana.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A ,B,C,D & E
• In section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer type questions.
• In section B question number 4 is Source based question.
• In section C question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer type questions.
• In section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer type questions.
• In section E question number 10 is a Map based question.

Section – A
(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)

Attempt all questions.

Question 1.
‘Outsourcing is providing lots of jobs in developing countries.’ Discuss.

Question 2.
How does the ‘Suez Canal’ serve as a gateway of commerce for both the eastern and western worlds? Ex plain with suitable  examples.

Question 3.
How do secondary activities add value to natural resources? Explain with three examples.
OR
Ex plain the meaning of ‘technopolies’. Give two examples of technopolies.

Section – B
(Source Based Question) (3 x 1=3)

Question 4.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Small scale manufactring is distinguished from household industries by its production techniques and place of manufacture (a workshop outside the home/cottage of the producer). This type of manufacturing uses local raw materials, simple power-driven machines and semi-skilled labour. It provides employment and raises local purchasing power. Therefore, countries like India, China, Indonesia Brazil, etc. have developed labour-intensive small-scale manufacturing to employ their population.

Attempt all questions.

Question 4.1
How are small-scale industries distinguished from household industries?

Question 4.2
Which is the correct example of the small-scale industry?

Question 4.3
What type of raw material is used in small-scale industries?

Section – C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3=6)

Question 5.
Differentiate between metallic minerals and non-metallic minerals.

Question 6.
Write a note on the National Waterways of India.
OR
Distinguish between personal and mass communication.

Section – D
(Long Answer Type Questions)(3 x 5=15)

Question 7.
Define the term ‘manufacturing’. What are the characteristics of modern large-scale manufacturing?

Question 8.
Describe the nature of water pollution in India.
OR
How has noise pollution become hazardous in many big cities of India? Explain by giving suitable examples.

Question 9.
What was the main plan of the ’Tribal Sub-Plan’? What was its contribution in the development of Bharmaur area?

Section – E
(Map Based Question)(1 x 5=5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of world, identify the regions marked. (Attempt any 5)
(A) The place in Germany that has been a major industrial regions of Europe for a long time.
(B) Name an important steel city of the United States of America.
(C) A major airport of Japan.
(D) A major airport of India.
(E) Eastern terminal of Trans-Canadian Railway.
(F) A region in the USA that is famous for huge development in the information technology. Many leading companies like Facebook, Google, and Apple, headquarters are in this region.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Geography Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35

General Instructions:

• Question paper is divided into 5 sections A ,B,C,D & E
• In section A question number 1 to 3 are Very Short Answer type questions.
• In section B question number 4 is Source based question.
• In section C question number 5 & 6 are Short Answer type questions.
• In section D question number 7 to 9 are Long Answer type questions.
• In section E question number 10 is a Map based question.

Section – A
(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)

Attempt all questions:

Question 1.
Mention any two problems of the Ruhr Industrial Region. [2]
Answer:
Problems of the Ruhr Industrial Region are:

1. Industrial waste
2. Pollution
3. Iron ore exhaustion

Question 2.
Write the meaning of ‘medical tourism’ [2]
Answer:
When medical treatment is combined with international tourism activity, it is commonly known as medical tourism. Here people are travelling for gaining international medical care. It is also known as health tourism, surgical tourism or medical travel.

Question 3.
What is nuclear power? Mention any two important nuclear power stations in India. [2]
OR
What is ‘sectoral planning’?
Answer:
The power obtained by splitting atoms is called nuclear power. Nuclear power has emerged as a viable source in recent times. Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium & thorium. Tarapur in Maharashtra and Narora in Uttar Pradesh are two important nuclear power stations in India.

OR

The sectoral planning provides general guidelines directed towards ensuring the orderly and efficient development of facilities, land uses, transportation systems, population density and sequencing of development. Full consideration must be given to the costs and benefits of various actions upon the present and future social, economic and environmental fabric of the area.

Section – B
(Source Based Question) (3 x 1 = 3)

Question 4.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
Indian Railways:
Indian Railways network is one of the longest in the world. It facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contributes to the growth of the economy. Indian Railway was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane covering a distance of 34 km. Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country. The length of the Indian Railways network was 66,030 km as of 31st March, 2015. It’s very large size puts a lot of pressure on the centralised railway management system.

Thus, in India, the railway system has been divided into 16 zones. Indian Railways has launched extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow gauges to broad gauge. Moreover, steam engines have been replaced by diesel and electric engines. This step has increased the speed, as well as, the haulage capacity. The replacement of steam engines run by coal has also improved the environment of the stations.

Attempt all questions:

Question 4.1.
When was Indian Railway introduced?
Answer:
Indian Railway was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane covering a distance of 34 km.

Question 4.2
Which organisation is the largest in the country?
Answer:
Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country.

Question 4.3
How many zones are there in Indian Railway system?
Answer:
In India, the Railway system has been divided into 16 zones.

Section – C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (2 x 3 = 6)

Question 5.
Describe the three advantages of water transport in India.
Answer:
Advantages of water transport in India:

1. Waterways is an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India. It is the cheapest means of transport.
2. It is a fuel-efficient, eco-friendly mode of transport.
3. It is the most suitable mode of transport for carrying heavy and bulky material.

Question 6.
What is noise pollution? Explain any three sources of noise pollution.
OR
Describe any three major problems of slums in India.
Answer:
Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable and uncomfortable noise to human beings, which is
caused by noise from different sources. In recent years, noise pollution has become a serious problem.
The following sources are mainly responsible for noise pollution:

1. The main sources of noise pollution are various factories, mechanised construction and demolition works, automobiles and aircrafts, etc.
2. Various community activities also produces polluting noise through sirens, loudspeakers etc.
3. Out of all the sources, the biggest nuisance is the noise produced by traffic because of its intensity and nature depend upon factors, such as the type of aircraft, vehicle, train and the condition of road, as well as, that of vehicle.

OR

The three problemsfaced by slum dwellers in India are:

1. The areas in which they live (dilapidated houses) are overcrowded having narrow street pattern prone to serious hazards from fire.
2. Lack of basic amenities like drinking water, light and toilet facilities. Their houses have poor ventilation and poor hygienic conditions.
3. These slums in the nearby areas cause a lot pollution and thus, result in health hazards. Since theyhave no place to bathe, go to the toilet, wash their clothes, all this daily work is done in the open causing inconvenience to the residents of the area

Section – D

(Long Answer Type Questions) (3 x 5= 15)

Question 7.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of pipelines?
Answer:
The advantages of pipelines:

1. Pipelines provide an uninterrupted flow of water, gas and petroleum.
2. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but, the running cost is minimal.
3. They are eco-friendly, do not contribute to pollution and save fuel.
4. It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.
5. These can be laid in difficult terrains, underwater and densely forested areas.

Disadvantages:

1. Leakage in the pipelines is difficult to detect.
2. Safeguarding the pipeline from the extremists is very difficult.
3. These are not flexible and cannot give door-to-door services.
4. Once laid, capacity cannot be increased

Detailed Answer:
The advantages of pipelines:

(i) Pipelines provide uninterrupted flow of water, gas and petroleum: Pipelines are ideally suited to transport liquids and gases as they have relieved the increasing pressure on the existing surface transport system (railways and roadways). Moreover, pipelines are safe, accident-free and environmental friendly.

(ii) It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays: Supply through pipeline is very reliable. It is free from obstacles faced in road and rail transport.

(iii) Pipelines are quick, cheap, efficient and environment friendly mode of transportation. It minimizes tranship losses and delays.

Disadvantages:
(i) Leakage in the pipelines is difficult to detect: There is always a risk of damage caused to the pipeline because of various reasons such as road repair and other activities containing excavation. Such damages are very difficult to detect. This leads to pilferage and wastage due to leakage.

(ii) Once laid, capacity cannot be increased: Laying down the pipeline is a major and expensive task. Once laid, it is extremely difficult physically and economically to increase its capacity.

Question 8.
The Suez Canal and the Panama Canal are two vital human-made navigation canals which serve as gateways of commerce for both the eastern and western worlds’. In the light of this statement explain the economic significance of these two canals.
Answer:
Economic importance of the Suez and the Panama Canals:
The Suez Canal:

1. It has given Europe a new gateway to Indian Ocean and Australia.
2. It has shortened the distance.
3. It saves time and fuel.
4. It has become cheaper as compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.
5. Suez is sea-level canal.
6. Thus, Suez is very suitable for commerce.

The Panama Canal:

1. This canal has linked Eastern America with Western America.
2. It also links Europe with Western America.
3. It has shortened distance between Europe and Western America.
4. It saves time and fuel.
5. There are locks in canal even then it is more economical.

Detailed Answer:
The Suez Canal:

1. It has shortened the distance: The Suez Canal is considered to be the shortest link between the East and the West due to its unique geographical location.
2. It saves time and fuel: The Suez Canal saves distance, time and operating costs for vessels that transit the canal.
3. ft is an important international navigation canal linking the Mediterranean Sea at Port Said and the Red Sea at Port Suez.
4. Suez is verv suitable for commerce: The canal is liable to be widened and deepened when required to cope with the development in ship sizes and tonnages.
5. The accidents are almost nil compared with other waterways.

The Panama Canal:

1. It saves time and fuel: Today, 10% of the US shipping goes through the canal as it saves the travel time as well as the fuel consumption.
2. It has shortened distance between Europe and Western America: The canal has created an ease in the world trade. Therefore, the canal helps to keep the world trade running smoothly, keeping in mind America’s large economic importance.
3. This canal has linked Eastern America with Western America: The canal has shortened the distance and has opened the trade route between the US west coast and the east coast of South America.
4. It shortens the distance between Mew York and San Francisco by 13,000 km by sea.
5. The economic significance of this canal is vital to the economies of Latin America.

Question 9.
Explain the importance of five non-conventional sources of energy with suitable examples.
OR
Write short notes on drought-prone area programme and agro-climatic planning. How do these programmes help in the development of dryland agriculture in India?
Answer:
(i) Solar Energy: Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy known as solar energy. Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages over all other non-renewable energy sources. It is cost-competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct. It is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

(ii) Wind Energy: Wind energy is a pollution-free and inexhaustible source of energy. Permanent wind systems such as trade winds, westerlies and seasonal wind like monsoons have been used as source of energy. Besides these, local winds, land and sea breezes can also be used to produce electricity. The Ministry of Non-Conventional Sources of Energy is developing wind energy in India to lessen the burden of oil import bill. In Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka, favourable conditions for wind energy exist. Wind power plant at Lamba in Gujarat in Kachchh is the largest in Asia. Another, wind power plant is located at Tuticorin in Tamil Nadu.

(iii) Tidal and Wave Energy: Persistent efforts were made to create a more efficient energy system from the ceaseless tidal waves and ocean current. Large tidal waves are known to occur along the west coast of India. Hence, India has great potential for the development of tidal energy along the coasts but so far these have not yet been utilised.

(iv) Geothermal Energy: This energy is now considered to be one of the key energy sources that can be developed as an alternate source. The hot springs and geysers are being used since medieval period. In India, a geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.

(v) Bio-energy: Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products which includes agricultural residues, municipal, industrial and other wastes. Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion. It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking. This will improve economic life of rural areas in developing countries, reduce environmental pollution, enhance self-reliance and reduce pressure on fuel wood. One such project converting municipal waste into energy is Okhla in Delhi.

OR

This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets.
(i) Initially this programme laid emphasis on the construction of labour-intensive civil works. But later on, it emphasised on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation, grassland development and creation of basic rural infrastructure such as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.

(ii) National Committee on Development of Backward Areas, reviewed the performance of this programme. It has been observed that this programme is largely confined to the development of agriculture and allied sectors with major focus on restoration of ecological balance.

(iii) Since growing population pressure is forcing the society to utilise the marginal lands for agriculture and thereby causing ecological degradation, there is a need to create alternative employment opportunities in the drought-prone areas.

(iv) The other strategies of development of these areas include adoption of integrated watershed development approach at the micro-level. The restoration of ecological balance between water, soil, plants, human and animal population should be a basic consideration in the strategy of development of drought-prone area.

(v) Broadly, the drought-prone area in India is spread over semi-arid and arid tract of Rajasthan, Gujarat, western Madhya Pradesh, Marathwada region of Maharashtra, Rayalaseema and Telangana plateaus of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka plateau and highlands and interior parts of Tamil Nadu. The drought prone areas of Punjab, Haryana and northern Rajasthan are largely protected due to spread of irrigation in these regions.

Section – E
(Map Based Question) (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 10.
On the outline map of India indicate and mark the following features (Attempt any 5).
(A) The Bauxite mines in Orissa.
(B) The Oil Refineries in Uttar Pradesh.
(C) Coal mines in Orissa.
(D) The state with largest number of out-migrants.
(E) The Copper mines in Jharkhand.
(F) An iron ore mining area in Orissa

Answer:
(A) Koraput
(B) Mathura
(C) Talcher
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Hazaribagh
(F) Mayurbhanj