CBSE Sample Papers Archives

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

April 6, 2022

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum Marks :40

General Instructions :

The question paper has 3 Sections A, B &C.
Section A has 8 questions of 2 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 50 words each.
Section B has 3 questions of 4 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 100 words each. Answer of map question should be attempted accordingly.
Section C has 2 questions of 6 marks each. Answer to these questions should be completed within 170 words each

Section – A
[2 Marks Each]

Question 1.
‘In recent years India has paid adequate attention to ASEAN’. Give two points to justify the statement. (2)
Or
Explain ‘Miracle on the Han River’.
Answer:
In recent years India has paid adequate attention to ASEAN:

The ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement came into effect in 2010.
On January 25th, 2018, silver jubilee of India and ASEAN partnership was commemorated.
Leaders released postal stamps to mark the event

Miracle on Han River:

South Korea emerged as a center of power in Asia.
Between the 1960s and the 1980s, it rapidly developed into an economic power, which is termed as ‘Miracle on the Han River’.

Question 2.
South Asia stands for diversity in every sense and yet constitutes one geo-political space. Do you agree with the statement? Give two reasons for your answer. (2)
Answer:

The mighty Himalayas in the north and the vast Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal in the south west and east respectively provide a natural insularity to the region which is largely responsible for the linguistic, social and cultural distinctiveness of the subcontinent.
The various countries in South Asia do not have the same kind of political systems but democracy has become an accepted norm in this region.
Thus, yes, South Asia stands for diversity in every sense and yet constitutes one geo-political space.

Question 3.
Why do you think India is now considered as an important centre of power? (2)
Answer:
The 21st century India is being seen as an important emerging global power:

The economic, cultural and strategic position of the country with the population of more than 135 crores is very strong.
From a strategic perspective, the military of India is self-sufficient with indigenous nuclear technology, making it another nuclear power.
From an economic perspective, targeting the goal of a $5 trillion economy, a competitive huge market, and ancient inclusive culture with 200 million people of Indian diaspora spreading across the globe impart distinct meaning and salience to India as a new center of power in the 21st century.

Question 4.
American involvement in South Asia has rapidly increased after the Cold War. Give two examples to illustrate.with the statement? Give two reasons for your answer. (2)
Answer:

The United States has had good relations with both India and Pakistan since the end of the Cold War and increasingly works as a moderator in India- Pakistan relations.
The Economic reforms and liberal economic policies in both the countries have greatly increased the depth of American participation in the region.
The large South Asian Diasporas in the US and the huge size of the population and markets of the region also give America an added stake in the future of regional security and peace.

Question 5.
Evaluate the role of SAARC in facilitating the economic cooperation in the South Asian region. (2)
Answer:
(a) The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is a major regional initiative by the South Asian States to evolve cooperation through multilateral means. It began in 1985 SAARC members signed the South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) in 2004 which promised the formation of a free trade zone for the whole of South Asia.

(b) A new chapter of peace and cooperation might evolve in South Asia if all the countries in the region allow free trade across the borders.

Question 6.
The first general election was postponed twice. Give two reasons for the same. (2)
Answer:
The first general election was a mammoth exercise:

17 crore eligible voters were to elect about 3,200 MLAs and 489 members of Lok Sabha.
Only 15% of the voters were literate.
In the first draft of the rolls, names of nearly 40 lakh women were not recorded in the list.

Question 7.
Explicate two features of a Coalition Government. (2)
Answer:

When no single party gets a majority and two or more than two parties join together a form a government, it is called a Coalition Government.
Various small parties usually play a crucial role in forming a Coalition Government.
Position of the Head of Government usually remains weak as he/she has to appease all the stakeholders in the government.

Question 8.
Name the leader who led a peoples’ march to Parliament in 1975 and state as to what was unique about this march.
Answer:

When no single party gets a majority and two or more than two parties join together a form a government, it is called a Coalition Government.
Various small parties usually play a crucial role in forming a Coalition Government.
Position of the Head of Government usually remains weak as he/she has to appease all the stakeholders in the government.

Section – B
[4 Marks Each]

Question 9.
Compare the European Union with ASEAN. (4)
Answer:
The European Union:

After the Second World War, the Organization for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established by America, under the Marshall Plan.
The process of economic integration of European capitalist countries proceeded systematically and the Council of Europe was established in 1949.
This led to the formation of the European Economic Community in 1957. After the collapse of Soviet bloc, European Union was established in 1992.
It has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency. European Union was the world’s largest economy in 2005. It had a GDP of more than US $ 12 trillion in 2005.

ASEAN:

1. Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in 1967 by five countries of this region -Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand by signing the Bangkok Declaration.

2. ASEAN countries have adopted the “ASEAN Way” as a form of interaction that is informal, non- confrontationist and cooperative.

3. In 2003, ASEAN moved along the path of establishing an ASEAN Community comprising three pillars, namely, the ASEAN Security Community, the ASEAN Economic Community and the ASEAN Socio-Cultural Community.

4. ASEAN had several agreements in place by which member states promised to uphold peace, neutrality, cooperation, non-interference and respect for national differences and sovereign rights. ASEAN economy is growing much faster than other countries.

5. ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labor and services. ASEAN Vision 2020 had defined an outward-looking role for ASEAN in the international community. ASEAN policy has been to encourage negotiation over conflicts in the region.

Question 10.
Describe various issues regarding the National Emergency of 1975 in India. (4)
Answer:
The various issues regarding the National Emergency of 1975 in India are as follows:

(a) There were arrests of political workers and undue restrictions on the press.

(b) The Emergency directly affected the lives of common people in many cases. Fundamental Rights of the people were suspended. Torture and custodial deaths occurred during the Emergency and arbitrary relocation of poor people also took place.

(c) The Constitution simply mentioned ‘internal disturbances’ as the reason for declaring Emergency. Before 1975, the Emergency was never proclaimed on this ground.

(d) Although, the then government argued that in a democracy the opposition parties must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies. It felt that frequent recourse to agitations; protests and collective action are not good for democracy.

(e) Supporters of the then Prime Minister also held that in a democracy, one cannot continuously have extra-parliamentary politics targeting the government. This leads to instability and distracts the administration from its routine task of ensuring development.

Question 11.
In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C), (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per format that follows: (4)
(i) The state to which Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India belonged.
(ii) The state to which the former Prime Minister Morarji Desai was related ’
(iii) The state to which S. Nijalingappa belonged.
(iv) The state related to former Congress President K. Kamraj.

Sr. Number of the information used	Alphabet concerned	Name of State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

Answer:

Sr. Number of the information used	Alphabet concerned	Name of State
(i)	A	Uttar Pradesh
(ii)	C	Gujarat
(iii)	B	Karnataka
(iv)	D	Tamil Nadu

Section – C
[6 Marks Each]

Question 12.
‘Peace and prosperity of countries lay in the establishment and strengthening of regional economic
organizations’. Critically evaluate the statement. (6)
Or
Give an account of the changing role of state in the light of Globalization.
Answer:

The members of Regional organizations resolve their mutual differences and adopt foreign trade policy, thus give way to their economic development.
Backward countries also get a chance for their development and thus, employment also increases.
Standard of living of every country is improved.
They get facilities of quality education, health and transport.
When the public gets satisfied, then its trust in Nation’s policy increases and thus along with its capability, also corporates in its policies, which brings peace and prosperity in a country.
There are no chances of public outrage.

(a) Globalization results in an erosion of state capacity, i.e. the ability of government to do what they do.

(b) All over the world, the old welfare state is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions, such as, the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens.

(c) The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of government to take decisions on their own.

(d) Globalization has also reduced the power of states to decide national and foreign policy voluntarily. They have been forced to follow the policies and decisions of international organizations.

(e) There has been a change in the role of the state in making and implementing strict rules of import- export. Because globalization is based on the concept of rapid flow of people, things and ideas. Therefore, the barriers to permits, licenses etc. have been reduced, due to which the role of the state has also been reduced.

(f) In some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalization, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizen. With the information, the state is better able to rule, not less able.

Question 13.
Critically evaluate the six main issues in Indian politics during the 21st century. (6)
Or
Discuss the impact of the relationship between the Judiciary and the Executive during emergency period in India.
Answer:
(a) Triple Talaq:
Rights of women and dignity were upheld in the judgement and an end was put to
the exploitation and insecurity of women.

(b) Article 370:
Special status of Jammu and Kashmir revoked, reaffirming that it is an integral part of India.

(c) Farm Laws Repeal:
There were a yearlong protest of farmers largely across Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh and surmounting pressure on the government by Dharna in Delhi. This led to the intervention of Judiciary and formation of an expert committee. Finally, led to repeal.

(d) CAA-NRC Law:
To fast rack citizenship for minorities in neighboring states, however accumulated fears within Indian communities which led to country wide protests. Judiciary had to intervene. Finally, implementation was put on hold by the government.

(e) Ram Janmabhoomi:
This was a centuries long dispute and was re-ignited in the 1990s. It shaped the discourse of Indian Politics( rise of BJP). The case went to Supreme Court after Allahabad Court’s judgement in 2010. An expert committee was formed by the Supreme Court. Finally judgement came in 2019 and the matter was put to rest.

(f) Majoritarian government (single party) in 2014 and 2019, yet followed the pre-poll alliance (NDA).

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

April 5, 2022

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 5 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D
All questions are compulsory.
Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question I should not exceed 80 words.
Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each I question should not exceed 150-200 word
Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
“The battle between the hoe and the plough was a long one.” Substantiate the statement with reference
to the Santhals and Paharis of Rajmahal Hills during 18th Century. (3)
OR
What was Damin-i-Koh? Why did Santhals resist against British during eighteenth century? (3)

Question 2.
Why did the British annex Awadh in 1856? On what pretext did they carry out the annexation? Explain. (3)

Question 3.
Explain the objectives of the Indian constitution. (3)

Question 4.
“Salt Law was an issue of struggle”. Explain. (3)

Section – B
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 5.
As per Gandhiji, what was chosen as symbol of Nationalism and why.(6)
OR
‘First Round table conference, took place after 10 years of reforms brought by British Government. Still, the dialogues at the conference were not conclusive’. Why?

Question 6.
Describe the making of the constitution and constituent Assembly (6)

Question 7.
Examine the idea of Sulh-i-Kul as the cornerstone of Akbar’s enlightened rule. (6)
OR
Discuss about Indian rulers of “Timurids-Mongols descendent branch” (Mughals). Also state the reason for production of chronicles.

Section – C
(Case Based Questions)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (1 + 1 + 2 = 4)
“There cannot be any divided loyalty”

Govind Ballabh Pant argued that to become loyal citizens, people had to stop focusing only on the community and the self.
For the success of democracy one must train observe in the art of self discipline.
In Democracy one should care less for himself and more for there. There cannot be any divided loyalty. All loyalties must exclusively be centred round the state. If in a democracy, you create rival loyalty, or you create a system in which any individual or group instead of suppressing his extravagance cares nought for larger or other interests, their democracy is doomed.

Question 8.1
What do we mean by the saying “there cannot be any divided loyalty” as per the passage.

Question 8.2
For the democracy to succeed, what is important and why?

Question 8.3
What is meant by the “art of self discipline”?

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (1+1+2=4)
Abu’l Fazl gives a vivid account of Akbar’s darbar: Whenever his majesty holds court (darbar), a large drum was beaten the sound of which was accompanied by a divine praise.
In this manner people of all classes received notice. His majesty’s sons and grandchildren the grandness of the court, and all other men who have admittance attend to make the “Kornish” and they remain in their proper place learned men of renown and skillful areas pay their respect. And the officers of justice present their reports. His majesty with his usual insights gives orders and satisfactorily settles everything. During the whole time skillful gladiators and wrestlers from all countries hold themselves in readiness and singers male and female are in waiting, clever jugglers and funny tumblers are also there to exhibit their dexterity and agility.

Question 9.1
What is the meaning of the term “Kornish”?

Question 9.2
Why were Darbars being organised?

Question 9.3
Describe the proceedings of the court.

Section – D
(Map Skill Base Question)

Question 10.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol: (1 + 1 = 2)
(a)
(i) This place was one of the major centres of the Revolt of 1857.
OR
(ii) Kunwar Singh (Lion of Bihar) led the Indian Rebellion of 1857 at this place.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate centre of the National Movement which is marked as A. Identify it and write its name.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

April 5, 2022

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 4 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D
All questions are compulsory.
Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question I should not exceed 80 words.
Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each I question should not exceed 150-200 word
Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
(Short Answer Type Questions) (3 x 4 = 12)

Question 1.
What were the features of the institutions of an imperial structure created by Mughals in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

Question 2.
What was the purpose of the ‘Objectives Resolution’ introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru? [3]
OR
“The East India Company had recognised the Zamindars importance but wanted to control and regular them.” Explain the steps taken by them to subdue their authority in the century.

Question 3.
Why was there a demand for separate electorates after the independence? [3]

Question 4.
Why did Congress not accept the two-nation theory? [3]

Section – B
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 5.
The Salt March was a notable event. Give reasons. [6]

Question 6.
Write a short note on Khilafat Movement. [6]
OR
Describe the Rajmahal hills according to Buchanan in your own words.

Question 7.
In introducing the Permanent Settlement, British officials hoped to resolve the problems they had been facing since the conquest of Bengal. Give reasons. [6]
OR
How did the increase of cotton exports to Britain affected India?

Section – C
(Case Based Questions) (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

From the late nineteenth century, a non-Brahman movement, which opposed the caste system and landlordism, had developed in Maharashtra. This movement established links with the national movement by the 1930s. In 1943, some of the younger leaders in the Satara district of Maharashtra set up a parallel government (Prati Sarkar), with volunteer corps (Seva dais) and village units (tufan dais). They ran people’s courts and organised constructive work. Dominated by Kunbi peasants and supported by Dalits, the Satara Prati sarkar functioned till the elections of 1946, despite government repression and, in the later stages, Congress disapproval.

Question 8.1
Which system was opposed in a non-Brahman movement? [1]

Question 8.2
How did the movement take place? [2]

Question 8.3
Where did the movement take place? [1]

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

Mughal court chronicles were written in Persian. Under the Sultans of Delhi, it flourished as a language of the court and of literary writings, alongside north Indian languages, especially Hindavi and its regional variants. As the Mughals were Chaghtai Turks by origin, Turkish was their mother tongue. Their first ruler Babur wrote poetry and his memoirs in this language. It was Akbar who consciously set out to make Persian the leading language of the Mughal court. Cultural and intellectual contacts with Iran, as well as a regular stream of Iranian and Central Asian migrants seeking positions at the Mughal court, might have motivated the emperor to adopt the language.

Question 9.1
In which language was Mughal court chronicles written? [1]

Question 9.2
How did the language ‘Persian1 flourish? [1]

Question 9.3
Why did Akbar decide to adopt the language, Turkish? [2]

Section – D
(Map Skill Base Question) (1 x 2 = 2)

Question 10.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol: [1 + 1=2]

Question (a)
(i) The place where Akbar decided to build a new capital in the 1570s. [1]
OR
(ii) The place where Mahatma Gandhi first appeared after returning from South Africa. [1]

Question (b)
On the same outline map of India, the place where Mahatma Gandhi spent much of time of 1917
to obtain peasant’s security, is marked as A. Identify it and write its name on the line drawn near them. [1]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

April 5, 2022

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 3 for Practice

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D
All questions are compulsory.
Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question I should not exceed 80 words.
Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each I question should not exceed 150-200 word
Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section – A
(Short Answer Type Questions) (3 x 4 = 12)

Question 1.
What were the features of the institutions of an imperial structure created by Mughals in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

Question 3.
Why was there a demand for separate electorates after the independence? [3]

Question 4.
Why did Congress not accept the two-nation theory? [3]

Section – B
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 5.
The Salt March was a notable event. Give reasons. [6]

Question 6.
Write a short note on Khilafat Movement. [6]
OR
Describe the Rajmahal hills according to Buchanan in your own words.

Section – C
(Case Based Questions) (4 x 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

Question 8.1
Which system was opposed in a non-Brahman movement? [1]

Question 8.2
How did the movement take place? [2]

Question 8.3
Where did the movement take place? [1]

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:

Question 9.1
In which language was Mughal court chronicles written? [1]

Question 9.2
How did the language ‘Persian1 flourish? [1]

Question 9.3
Why did Akbar decide to adopt the language, Turkish? [2]

Section – D
(Map Skill Base Question) (1 x 2 = 2)

Question 10.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol: [1 + 1=2]

Question (a)
(i) The place where Akbar decided to build a new capital in the 1570s. [1]
OR
(ii) The place where Mahatma Gandhi first appeared after returning from South Africa. [1]

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

April 5, 2022

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 History Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

This Question paper is divided into four sections-Section A, B, C and D
All questions are compulsory.
Section-A: Question no. 1 to 4 are Short Answer type questions of 3 marks each. Answer to each question I should not exceed 80 words.
Section-B: Question no. 5 to 7 are Long Answer type questions, carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each I question should not exceed 150-200 word
Section-C: Question no. 8 and 9 are Case Based questions, carrying 4 marks each with subparts.
Section-D: Question no. 10 is map based, carrying 2 marks.
There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section A
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
Show how the power of the Jotedars within a village was more effective than that of the Zamindars. (3)
Answer:
The power of the Jotedars within the village was more effective than that of the Zamindars:

Jotedars were located in villages while Zamindars lived in urban areas.
Indirectly controlled the ryots by advancing money, controlling local trade.
Withholding payment of revenue.
Holding benami lands.
Purchased the auctioned estates of Zamindars.
They became an alternate source of power in villages.

Question 2.
What was the problem India faced after the Independence besides the partition? (3)
OR
In the Constituent Assembly, the members had to balance between conflicting interests. Explain. (3)
Answer:
The problem faced by the new nation after independence was that of the princely states. During the period of the British Raj, approximately one-third of the area of the subcontinent was under the control of nawabs and maharajas who owed allegiance to the British Crown, but were otherwise left mostly free to rule – or misrule – their territory as they wished. When the British left India, the constitutional status of these princes remained ambiguous. As one contemporary observer remarked, some maharajas now began “to luxuriate in wild dreams of independent power in an India of many partitions”.

Since members of the Constituent Assembly came from different communities having a variant socioeconomic background, they had different political opinions. Often, they had conflicting views. Thus, the Constituent Assembly had to manage between these conflicting opinions and interests. Many members of the Constituent Assembly demanded that abattoirs should be closed and cow- slaughter made a criminal offence. Some people wanted Hindi as a national language and many others opposed it vehemently.

Question 3.
How did “Quit India” become a mass movement? (3)
Answer:
After the failure of the Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third major movement against British rule. This was the “Quit India” campaign, which began in August 1942. It was genuinely a mass movement, bringing to its ambit hundreds of thousands of ordinary Indians.

It especially energised the young who, in very large numbers, left their colleges to go to jail. However, while the Congress leaders languished in jail, Jinnah and his colleagues in the Muslim League worked patiently at expanding their influence. It was in these years that the League began to make a mark in the Punjab and Sind, provinces where previously it had scarcely any presence.

Question 4.
Critically examine Lord Dalhousie’s policy of annexation in Awadh. (3)
Answer:
The Revolt of 1857 was well planned and well-coordinated. In spite of the Nawabs of Awadh being loyal to the British, it did not stop Lord Dalhousie’s plan to annex Awadh. It was done in stages and it was needed because the soil was good for the cultivation of cotton and indigo. On 13th February 1856, Awadh was annexed to the British Empire on the grounds of maladministration.

Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was sent to Calcutta with an annual pension. The British Government wrongly assumed that Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was an unpopular ruler. On the contrary, he was widely loved. With the dissolution of the royal administration, large number of officials, Taluqdars and courtiers, cooks, dancers, musicians, and poets, all lost their livelihoods. So, the social order was completely broken down.

Detailed Answer:
The annexation of Awadh:
(a) Lord Dalhousie had referred to Awadh as a “Cherry that is to Drop-in our (British) Mouth”.
(b) He had used a 2-tier policy annex Awadh.

The first phase was the implementation of the Subsidiary Alliance in 1801 under Wellesley:
(a) Through the Subsidiary Alliance, the Indian army/troops of the Nawab would be dismantled and replaced by the British troops.

(b) Through this, the Nawab’s control on the troops would be weakened and British could gain stronger control in the region. The British were interested in the annexation of Awadh because the land was fertile and was apt for growing indigo and cotton. The second phase was that they had annexed the Nawab of Awadh, Wajid Ali Shah from the throne and exiled him to Calcutta. The British had wrongly assessed the Nawab as an unpopular ruler. When the Nawab was exiled many citizens/people had followed him till Kanpur and they sang songs of sorrow and despair, one such song was “The soul went out of the body”. Not only in Awadh, but this annexation also happened in the Maratha lands, Punjab and Bengal.

Section – B
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 5.
How did Mahatma Gandhi transform Indian nationalism? (6)
Answer:
By 1922, Gandhiji had transformed Indian nationalism, thereby redeeming the promise he made in his BHU speech of February 1916. It was no longer a movement of professionals and intellectuals; now, hundreds of thousands of peasants, workers and artisans also participated in it. Many of them venerated Gandhiji, referring to him as their “Mahatma”. They appreciated the fact that he dressed like them, lived like them, and spoke their language. Unlike other leaders, he did not stand apart from the common folk but empathised and even identified with them.

This identification was strikingly reflected in his dress, while other nationalist leaders dressed formally, wearing a Western suit or an Indian band gala, Gandhiji went among the people in a simple dhoti or loincloth. Meanwhile, he spent part of each day working on the charkha (spinning wheel) and encouraged other nationalists to do likewise. The act of spinning allowed Gandhiji to break the boundaries that prevailed within the traditional caste system, between mental labour and manual labour.

Question 6.
Describe the variety of tasks involved in creation of manuscripts during the reign of the Mughal. (6)
OR
Discuss, with examples, the distinctive features of Mughal chronicles
Answer:
The process of manuscript production in Mughal court was as follows:

All books of Mughal India were in the form of manuscripts i.e. these were handwritten.
Royal kitabkhana was the main centre of manuscripts’ production. Although, the term kitabkhana can be translated as the term library, actually it was a scriptorium.
It was a place where the manuscripts of the empire were collected and the new manuscript was fabricated.
Various multi-tasking people were included for the fabrication of manuscripts.
Papermakers were needed to prepare the folios of the manuscript, calligraphers or scribes to copy the text, gilders to illuminate the pages, painters to illustrate a scene from the textbook, binders collected the individual folio’s and set them within the ornamental covers.
Prepared manuscript was taken as a precious object, an intellectual property and work of beauty.
Such books were seen as examples of the power of Mughal emperors.
Among the different persons involved in the production of manuscripts, calligraphers and painters hold a high social position, but paper makers or bookbinders have remained common artisans.

Chronicles commissioned by the Mughal emperors are an important source for studying the empire and its court.
They were written in order to project a vision of an enlightened kingdom to all those who came under its umbrella.
The authors of Mughal chronicles focused on events related to the life of the ruler, their family, the court and nobles, wars, and the administrative system.
These chronicles were written in Persian.
This language flourished as a language of the court and of literary writings, alongside the north Indian languages, especially Hindavi and its regional variants.
As the Mughals were Chaghtai lurks by origin, Turkish was their mother tongue.
Chronicles narrating the events of a Mughal emperor’s reign contained, alongside the written text, images that described an event in visual form.
When scenes or themes in a book were to be given visual expression, the scribe left blank spaces on nearby pages; paintings, executed separately by artists, were inserted to accompany what was described in words.

Question 7.
Examine any four major issues that went into the making of the Indian Constitution. (6)
OR
Why was the plea to make Hindi the language of constitution-making a cause of agitation in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The making of the Indian Constitution was greatly influenced by many subjects or issues. These issues were such without which the establishment of real democracy was not possible. Out of these important issues, the main was as follows:

1. Political equality and socio-economic justice: The right to Universal Adult Franchise was the symbol of political equality. However, this political equality was incomplete without social and economic justice. So, it was essential to abolish social and economic discrimination.

2. Issues concerning the Dalits and the untouchables: It was essential to give special patronage for the upliftment of the Dalits and the Untouchables. The same was needed for the scheduled tribes.

3. Centralised federation: A federal government with a strong centre was set up to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation. This federation was a symbol of unity amidst diversity.

4. Separate electorate: The Dalits and minority communities were demanding a separate electorate
so that they may be able to get their representatives elected in the legislature. But it could endanger one’s loyalty towards the state. So, this view was rejected remove.

In one of the earliest sessions of the Constituent Assembly, R. V Dhulekar, a Congressman from the United Provinces, made an aggressive plea that Hindi be used as the language of constitution-making. When told that not everyone in the Assembly knew the language, Dhulekar retorted: “People who are present in this House to fashion a constitution for India and do not know Hindustani is not worthy to be members of this Assembly. They better leave.”

As the House broke up in commotion over these remarks, Dhulekar proceeded with his speech in Hindi. On this occasion peace in the House was restored through Jawaharlal Nehru’s intervention, but the language issue continued to disrupt proceedings and agitate members over the subsequent three years. Almost three years later, on 12 September 1947, Dhulekar’s speech on the language of the nation once again sparked off a huge storm.

By now the Language Committee of the Constituent Assembly had produced its report and had thought of a compromise formula to resolve the deadlock between those who advocated Hindi as the national language and those who opposed it. It was decided, but not yet formally declared, that Hindi in the Devanagari script would be the official language, but the transition to Hindi would be gradual.

For the first fifteen years, English would continue to be used for all official purposes. Each province was to be allowed to choose one of the regional languages for official work within the province. By referring to Hindi as the official rather than the national language, the Language Committee of the Constituent Assembly hoped to placate ruffled emotions and arrive at a solution that would be acceptable to all. Dhulekar did not like such an attitude of reconciliation. He wanted Hindi to be declared not an Official Language, but a National Language.

Section – C
(Case Based Questions)

Question 8.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows: (14 – 1 + 2 = 4)

Mahatma Gandhi was to spend much of 1917 in Champaran, seeking to obtain the peasants’ security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice. The following year, 1918, Gandhiji was involved in two campaigns in his home state of Gujarat. First, he intervened in a labour dispute in Ahmedabad, demanding better working conditions for the textile mill workers. Then he joined peasants in Kheda in asking the state for the remission of taxes following the failure of their harvest. These initiatives in Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda marked Gandhiji out as a nationalist with a deep sympathy for the poor. At the same time, these were all localised struggles

Question 8.1
Why did Mahatma Gandhi spend time in Champaran?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi was to spend much of 1917 in Champaran, seeking to obtain for the peasant’s security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice.

Question 8.2
Mention the two campaigns in which Mahatma Gandhi got involved.
Answer:
The two campaigns were – he intervened in a labour dispute in Ahmedabad, demanding better working conditions for the textile mill workers. Then he joined peasants in Kheda in asking the state for the remission of taxes following the failure of their harvest.

Question 8.3
What narrative about Mahatma Gandhi came out after the initiatives at Champaran?
Answer:
These initiatives in Champaran, Ahmedabad and Kheda marked Gandhiji out as a nationalist with a deep sympathy for the poor.

Question 9.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows. (1+1+2=4)

Abu’l Fazl defined sovereignty as a social contract: the emperor protects the four essences of his subjects, namely, life (jaan), property (mal), honour (namus) and faith (din), and in return demands obedience and a share of resources. Only just sovereigns were thought to be able to honour the contract with power and Divine guidance. Many symbols were created for the visual representation of the idea of justice which came to stand for the highest virtue of the Mughal monarchy. One of the favourite symbols used by artists was the motif of the lion and the lamb (or goat) peacefully nestling next to each other. This was meant to signify a realm where both the strong and the weak could exist in harmony. Court scenes from the illustrated Badshah Nama place such motifs in a niche directly below the emperor’s throne.

Question 9.1
Why did Abu’l Fazl define sovereignty as a social contract?
Answer:
Abu’l Fazl defined sovereignty as a social contract: the emperor protects the four essences of his subjects, namely, life (jan), property (mal), honour (namus) and faith (din), and in return demands obedience and a share of resources.

Question 9.2
What was the highest virtue of monarchy in the Mughal? Why?
Answer:
Justice was regarded as the most important virtue of monarchy in the Mughal Empire. Only just sovereigns were thought to be able to honour the contract with power and Divine guidance.

Question 9.3
What was one of the favourite symbols used by artists?
Answer:
One of the favourite symbols used by artists was the motif of the lion and the lamb (or goat) peacefully nestling next to each other.

Section – D
(Map Skill Base Question)

Question 10.
On the given political outline map of India, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol: (1+1=2)

(a) (i) The place where the colonial rule was first established.
OR
(ii) The Santhal Revolt took place here in 1555-1556.

(b) On the same outline map of India, the place where the sepoys arrived in the morning on 11th Maynce Mughal Emperor, Bahadur Shah Zafar to lead the mutiny, is marked as A. Identify it and write its name on the line drawn near them.
Sample Question Papers

Answer :
(a) (i) Bengal