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What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes Social Science History Chapter 5 SST Pdf free download is part of Class 6 Social Science Notes for Quick Revision. Here we have given What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 History Chapter 5 Notes. https://www.cbselabs.com/books-burials-tell-us-cbse-notes-class-6-social/

What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes Social Science History Chapter 5

What Books And Burials Tell Us Notes

Burial Spots of Families: Some burial chambers have more than one skeleton, probably meaning that one chamber was used for many members of the same family. A hole in the wall allowed the chamber to be used over and over again. The burial sites were marked by stones.

Battles: Rig Veda tells us about battles fought for land and cattle. People met in assemblies and discussed war and peace. Wealth obtained thereafter was distributed amongst the leaders, priests and people.

Vedas: Initially, the Rigveda was not in written form, but was passed on orally. Knowledge passed on in this way is known as ‘Shruti’. The Vedic teachers took great care to teach students to pronounce words and memorise hymns correctly.

Class 6 History Chapter 4 What Books And Burials Tell Us Notes

Sanskrit and Other Languages: Scholars have discovered many similarities between Sanskrit and European languages such as Latin, English and German. Historians came to the conclusion that Sanskrit belongs to the Indo-European group of languages. Other languages like Hindi, Kashmiri, Sindhi, etc. also belong to the same group.

Skeleton Studies: Study of the bone structure helps to differentiate between male and female skeletons. The hip or the pelvic area of a woman is generally larger than a man.

Class 6 History Chapter 5 Notes

Special Burial at Inamgaon: We find burials dated back to 3600 and 2700 years ago. Adults were generally buried in the ground. Special mention may be made of a man who was found buried in a large, four-legged clay jar in the courtyard of a five-roomed house.

Writing Evidence: First evidence of writing in China was found 3500 years ago. These writings were on animal bones and were called oracle bones. However, the Chinese did not know the use of iron.

Other languages: Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam belong to the Dravidian family and the languages spoken in Jharkhand and parts of Central India belong to the Austro-Asiatic family.

Megaliths: These literally mean big stones, which were used by early men to spot burial sites.

What Books And Burials Tell Us Pdf Notes Class 6

There are four Vedas:

• Rigveda
• Samaveda
• Yajurveda
• Atharvaveda.

The oldest one is the Rigveda (3500 years ago). It contains over a thousand hymns (“Suktas”). The Vedas are religious texts of Hinduism. The hymns were composed by rishis and students memorised them. The Rigveda has been written in old (Vedic) Sanskrit.

The Vedas were written down much later. Students learnt the hymns and passed it on to other generations by memorising and not writing.

                                                                      The Manuscript of rigveda
Rigveda contains prayers for cattle, children and horsesf Wealth was distributed among the leaders, priests and other people, according to the Rigveda. ‘Yajnas’ were performed. Most men took part in wars.

The Rigveda divides people in two groups on the basis of their work : the ‘brahmins’ and the ‘rajas’. People or the community as a whole have been referred to as ‘jana’ or ‘vish’. The composers of hymns called themselves ‘Aryas’, and their opponents ‘Dasas’/ ‘Dasyus’.

What Books And Burials Tell Us Summary Class 6

Stone boulders as the one in figure are called Megaliths.

                                                                                     Megalith
They were used to mark burial sites. This practice was used in the Deccan and Kashmir. Some megaliths are on the surface and some are underground.

The dead were buried with distinctive pots, which are called Black and Red Ware.

People were buried along with several objects. The objects were chosen probably depended upon the status of the person dead.

What Books And Burials Tell Us Class 6 Notes

Families were usually buried together.

In Inamgaon, people were buried with their head towards the north. Vessels containing food and water were placed with them.

Aryas: The people who composed the hymns used the word ‘Aryas’ for themselves.

Black and Red-Ware: The two distinctive pots, with which the dead were buried, have been called the Black and the Red Ware.

Brahmins: The priests were referred to as the ‘Brahmins’. They performed various rituals.

Dasyus/Dasas: The opponents of the ‘Aryas’ were referred to as ‘Dasas’/’Dasyus’ by them. This world later meant ‘slave’.

What Books And Burials Tell Us Notes Pdf Class 6

Megalith: A stone boulder, used to mark burial site, is referred to as a megalith.

Sukta: The hymns of the Vedas were called ‘Suktas’, which translates into ‘well-said’.

About 3600 years ago – beginning of the settlement of Inamgaon.

About 3500 years ago (i.e. circa 1500 B.C.) – beginning of composition of the oldest of the Vedas, the Rigveda.

About 3000 years ago (i.e. circa 1,000 B.C.) – beginning of the building of megaliths.

Around 2700 years ago (i.e. circa 700 B.C.) – end of settlement at Inamgaon.

Around 2000 years ago – Charaka wrote ‘Charaka Samhita’.

Less than 200 years ago (in the 19th century A.D.) – printing of the Rigveda for the first time.

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Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Biology Standard Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 6 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each; and Section-C has a case-based question of 5 marks.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
• Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A

Question 1.
‘Prevention is better than cure’ is an appropriate slogan to safeguard adolescents from drug abuse. List any six steps that could be taken in this regard?
Answer:
The steps are as follows:

1. Education and awareness is the first step to avoid such things.
2. Avoiding undue peer pressure as every child has his/her own personality and stamina to cope up with the existing society.
3. There should be regular monitoring of activities of adolescents behind them.
4. Parents must channelise the capacity of an individual into various recreational acts like sports, music and other such extra curricular activities.
5. Parents should seek professional and medical help from the experts and should insist the young generation to adopt activities like Yoga.
6. Parents must be able to identify the motivations for alcohols and drug abuse in the upcoming generation and keep a check on them.

Question 2.
Trying a particular drug even once may lead to addiction and complications. How should a youth under the influence of peer pressure to try a particular drug, be explained and convinced never to try a drug.
OR
Study the figure below and Identify the nature of product produced:

Answer:
The first dose of a drug may be just an experimentation of curiosity that is hiked by the friends. Once the drug enters the body it may get assimilated into the blood and the abuser may become unable to escape from it. In young generation, due to rising competition in academics and sports, the youths are easily drawn towards drugs and alcohol. Another reason of abusing such things is the feeling of loneliness or avoidance of parents due to their busy work schedule. Unstable and unsupportive family structures and peer pressures have drawn the youths towards alcoholism and drugs. Further dependence leads the patient to ignore all social norms and evacuates him or her from the society. Regular dosage of alcohol or drugs induces the symptoms like anxiety, shakiness, nausea, sweating, and inability to concentrate and remain in the social structure.
OR
Penicillin is used as an antibiotic medicine. It was due to chemical produced by the mould and name was given penicillin after the mould Penicillium notation.

Question 3.
Analyse the below given chemical structure and answer the questions based on it:

(i) The given structure is of which chemical?
(ii) What is the common name of this chemical?
(iii) What are the physical attributes of this chemical?
(iv) This chemical is obtained from which plant?
Answer:
(i) The chemical structure is of Morphine.
(ii) Heroin or Smack.
(iii) It is crystalline in nature, bitter in taste, white in colour and is odourless.
(iv) It is obtained from Papaver somniferum, commonly called as poppy plant.

Question 4.
Most living organisms cannot survive at the temperature above 45° C. How are some microbes able to live in habitats with temperatures exceeding 100° C?
Answer:
The organisms surviving in the extreme conditions are known as extremophiles. It has been found that certain organisms have colonised even in the underwater volcanic vents and hot springs. Such organisms are known as thermophiles. They have certain thermo resistant enzymes that carry out the metabolic processes even under high temperatures.

Question 5.
Apart from being the part of the food chain, predators play other important roles. Mention any two such roles supported by the examples.
Answer:
Other such roles are:
(i) Keeping the prey population under control. For example, wilder beast, the population is kept under control by the carnivores animals.
(ii) Act as a biological control agents to control specific species. For example, moths and lady bird beetle naturally feeding on the plant prickly pear.

Question 6.
Analyse the following given pie chart and answer the questions based on it.

(i) What conclusion can be derived from graph 1?
(ii) What does graph 2 say?
(iii) What is the ratio of fungi to the animals?
OR
Ecology at the organisms level is essentially physiological ecology which tries to understand how different organisms are adapted to their environments in terms of not only survival but also reproduction. The rotation of our planet around the Sun and the tilt of its axis cause annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature, resulting in distinct seasons.

Give major abiotic factors governing the ecology and explain in short about temperature as a factor.
Answer:
(i) As according to the graph, there is maximum population of plants as compared to animals that
comprise of 70 percent of the total species population.
(ii) As according to graph, in plants, the most species having its existence on earth is fungi.
(iii) The existing fungal species, their population is more than the total population of fishes, reptiles, amphibians and mammals. So, the ratio of fungi to animals will be more than 1.
OR
The balance of the ecology is due to the balance between the biotic and abiotic factors that govern the ecology. These factors are:
(i) Biotic Factors
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Heterotrophs
(c) Decomposers

(ii) Abiotic Factors
(a) Temperature
(b) Water
(c) Light
(d) Soil

Temperature is the most important abiotic factor that maintains the balance in the ecosystem and related processes. Temperature regulates the kinetics of the enzymes present in the body of an organism, thereby controlling the metabolic activities of the organism. All related physiological features are governed by the temperature. But certain organisms that tolerate the extreme temperatures have been found. These are extremophiles. The organisms that tolerate wide range of temperatures are called eurythermal and those who tolerate narrow range of temperatures are called stenothermal. They are found to be present in the underwater sea volcanic vents and hot springs as well as under freeze ice cap of polar regions respectively. Therefore the thermal variation decides the extent of a geographically habitual area.

Section – B

Question 7.
Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases of humans. Explain ‘Contact inhibition’ and ‘Metastasis’ with respect to disease. Name the groups of genes which have been identified in the normal cells that could lead to cancer and how they do so? Name any two techniques which are useful to detect cancers of internal organs. Why are cancer patients often given alpha interferon as part of the treatment?
OR
A woman was tested positive for AIDS. Name the pathogen that infected her. How does this pathogen weaken her immune system? Explain.
Answer:
Contact inhibition refers to the phenomenon by which, the contact with other cells inhibits the uncontrolled growth of the cancerous cells. In Metastasis, the tumour cells reach the distant organs site through the blood. The group of gene are oncogenes. When activated under certain conditions there is oncogenic transformation of cells. The techniques to detect cancers are Biopsy, Radiography, CT and MRI through which the presence of cancer can be detected. The alpha interferon activates the immune system and destroys the tumours, so it is given to the cancer patients as the part of the treatment.
OR
The disease named AIDS (Acquired Immuno-Deficiency Syndrome) is caused due to the pathogen named FFuman Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV). When HIV enters the helper T-lymphocytes, it replicates and produces progeny virus. This progeny virus is released in the blood that attacks the other T-lymphocytes. Due to lack of helper cells, the person lacks immune power and is attacked by multiple pathogens. In the last stage, the person faces multiple infections and complications that lead to death.

Question 8.
During a school trip to ‘Rohtang Pass’, one of your classmates suddenly developed ‘altitude sickness’. But, she recovered after sometime.
(i) Mention one symptom to diagnose the sickness.
(ii) What caused the sickness?
(iii) How could she recover by herself after some time ?
Answer:
(i) The symptoms may be nausea, fatigue or heart palpitation.
(ii) The sickness was caused due to low atmospheric pressure which prevails at high altitude. The body does not get enough oxygen.
(iii) The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing RBC production, decreasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin and by increasing breathing rate.

Question 9.
A and B are the two different cloning vectors in two different bacterial colonies cultured in a chromogenic substrate. Bacteria with cloning vector A were colourless whereas, those with B were blue coloured. Explain giving reasons the cause of the difference in colour that appeared.
Answer:
Alternative selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinants from non-recombinant DNA. In this procedure a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme called alpha galactose. It ends up in the inactivation of an enzyme which is called as insertional inactivation. The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue-coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert. The presence of insert results into the insertional inactivation of the alpha galactose and the colonies may not produce any colour.

Question 10.
Some organisms suspend their metabolic activities to survive in unfavourable conditions. Explain with the help of any four examples.
Answer:
The organisms that suspend their metabolic activities to survive in unfavourable conditions, their examples are:

• Polar bear: They undergo hibernation, to escape from the unfavourable conditions. After getting favourable normal temperature, they come back and gain the exhausted energy.
• Seeds of large plant and fungal species: Seeds undergo the state of dormancy in the extreme conditions. On getting the favourable conditions, the seeds germinate and grow. In context of fungal
  species, they produce thick walled spores and with the help of them, survive in the unsuitable conditions.
• Snails: The snails enter the aestivation to escape the hot summers.
• Some species of zooplankton: Zooplanktons enter diapause.

Question 11.
Given below is a schematic representation. Analyse and answer the questions asked on the basis of it:

(i) What does the graph show about?
(ii) What is the importance of biodiversity as according to the graph?
(iii) Do you think that climate has an adverse impact on biodiversity as according to the graph?
Answer:
(i) It explains the link between the biodiversity and other components of the ecosystem.

(ii) It is important because of the following points:
(a) It regulates the climate.
(b) It controls the ecosystem functions like biogeochemical cycling of nutrients.
(c) It provides ecosystem services to the human beings.

(iii) Yes, various anthropogenic processes and some ecosystem functions induce the changes in climatic patterns. This affects the biodiversity.

Question 12.
Analyse the diagram given below and answer the questions based on it:

(i) What does the above diagram represent?
(ii) What does the insulin contain?
(iii) What is the use of C-peptide in the diabetic patients?
(iv) How is insulin formed?
Answer:
(i) It represents the maturation of pro-insulin into insulin.
(ii) Insulin contains two short polypeptide chains that is chain A and chain B that are linked together with di-sulphide bridges.
(iii) It is useful for monitoring residual beta cell function in the human body under insulin therapy.
(iv) It is formed by chemical modification and cleavage of a precursor molecule.

Section – C

Question 13.
Genetic engineering, also called recombinant DNA technology, involves the group of techniques used to cut up and join together genetic material, especially DNA from different biological species, and to introduce the resulting hybrid DNA into an organism in order to form new combinations of heritable genetic material.

With advancement in genetics, molecular biology and tissue culture, new traits have been incorporated into crop plants. Explain the main steps in breeding a new genetic variety of crop.
OR
Analyse the diagram given below and answer the questions based upon it:

(i) What does the above given diagram represent?
(ii) In the diagram, what do A and B stand for?
(iii) What does the rop code for?
(iv) Is ori important? If we want to have many copies of target DNA, what should we do?
Answer:
In the process of developing a new genetic variety of crop, following steps are involved:

• The variability is collected through germplasm collection and preservation of different wild varieties.
• Selecting the desired parents in order to identify plants with desirable combination of traits through which the pure lines are produced.
• Carrying out cross-hybridisation among selected parents. Cross-hybridising the two parents produces the hybrids.
• The suitable progeny that has desired characters and is superior over its both the parents. Such recombinants are selected and tested.
• Further, the selected recombinants are tested for commercial release as a new cultivar.

OR
(i) The above given diagram is the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 depicting the restriction sites.
(ii) A is Hind III and B shows BamHl which are the restriction sites on the vector.
(iii) Rop codes for the proteins that are involved in the replication of the plasmid.
(iv) Yes, ori is important as it is a starting site of replication. Then the target DN A should be cloned in such a vector whose origin supports high copy number.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Business Studies Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Maximum Marks : 40
Time : 2 Hours

General Instructions

• This is a subjective question paper containing 12 questions.
• This paper contains 4 questions of 2 marks each, 4 questions of 3 marks each and 4 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Short Answer (SA) Type I Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
“Stock exchanges are market places where securities that have been listed thereon, may be bought and sold for either investment or speculation.” In the light of this statement, explain any two features of stock exchange.
Answer:
Following are the two features of stock exchange
(i) Organised Market Stock exchange is an organised market. Every stock exchange has a management committee which has all the rights related to management and control of exchange. All the transactions taking place in the stock exchange are done as per the prescribed procedure under the guidance of management committee.

(ii) Dealing in Securities Issued by Various Concerns Only those securities are traded in the stock exchange which are listed there. After fulfiling certain terms and conditions, a company can get its securities listed on stock exchange.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of capital structure.
Answer:
Capital structure refers to the proportion of debt and equity used for financing the operations of business. It refers to the mix between owner’s fund (equity) and borrowed funds (debts).

It can be calculated as debt-equity ratio \(\left(\frac{\text { Debt }}{\text { Equity }}\right)\) or as the proportion of debt in total capital known as financial leverage \(\left(\frac{\text { Debt }}{\text { Debt +Equity }}\right)\) Capital structure of a business affects both the profitability and the financial risk.

Question 3.
“Our assets walk out of the door every evening, we have to make sure that they come back the next morning”. This statement relates to one of the functions of management. State its importance.
Answer:
This statement relates to ‘staffing’. It is important because
(i) It ensures the availability of the most suitable and capable persons for various jobs.
(ii) By placing right person on the right job, it ensures better performance.

Question 4.
Isha Machines was a renowned name for quality sewing machines since 1960.
Mr. Suresh, the owner of Isha Machines, was worried as the production had declined during the last three months. He directed the Production Manager to find out the reason. The Production Manager ordered the different supervisors to prepare a performance report of the workers working under them. Identify and explain the step taken by the production manager in the controlling function of management.
Answer:
The step taken by the production manager is ‘measurement of actual performance’ in the controlling function of management. This step is conducted by the managers to analyse the overall efficiency level of the employees. While measuring the performance, objective and reliable methods should be used, such as sample checking, preparing reports, personal observation, etc.

Short Answer (SA) Type II Questions (3 Marks)

Question 5.
Explain how controlling helps in
(i) accomplishing organisational goals.
(ii) judging accuracy of standards.
Or
Blue Pharmacy is a company engaged in the production of life saving drugs.
The company has no internal system of performance appraisal and for the past two years, it has not declared any incentives or bonus to its employees, inspite of enormous profits.

One of its employee, Mr. Sangeet has discovered a new medication for dengue during in-house research. The company has got patent on it in its own name and no reward or compensation was given to Sangeet.

All these factors have de-motivated the employees and the company started facing the problem of high employee turnover rate, increased absenteeism, falling levels of productivity, etc

Due to a combined result of all these factors, Blue Pharmacy was not able to meet its organisational objectives. Design a control plan, suggesting measures to Blue Pharmacy to be able to achieve its objectives.
Answer:
(i) Accomplishing Organisational Goals The controlling function measures the accomplishment against the standards and corrects deviations. This helps in ensuring that organisation is moving on tire right track to achieve organisational goals.

(ii) Judging Accuracy of Standards A sound controlling system helps the management to verify whether the standards set are accurate and relevant or not. It keeps a careful check on the changes, which are taking place in the organisation.

Jr Under such circumstances, Blue Pharmacy should implement a control plan covering following points

• Performance based appraisal system should be introduced.
• Employees like Mr. Sangeet should be given due acknowledgement for their achievements.
• Proper communication of tasks should be made and feedback should be collected from time-to- time.

Question 6.
“Directing is the least important function of management.” Do you agree with this statement? Give any two reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
No, the statement is incorrect. Directing is of great importance for management. Its importance is as follows (any two):
(i) Initiates Action Directing is executing function of converting plans into action. It initiates action in the organisation for the achievement of predetermined goals.
(ii) Introduces Changes Employees are generally reluctant towards changes. Manager through effective directions helps the employees to adopt to such changes.
(iii) Provides Leadership Through direction, manager provides motivation and leadership to employees which helps them to identify their potentials, leading to growth.

Question 7.
Dividends declared by the companies are taken as a positive note by the investors. Stock markets react positively to such decisions and share prices tend to show an upward trend. But, at the same time, it is restricted to certain extent by the Companies Act as well as the financial condition of the concern. Franco, the financial manager of Sunlight Ltd. declared in the Annual General Meeting (AGM) that “It is costly to reinvest the retained earnings.” After considering his statement, what decision is taken by the board?
Answer:
Company’s net earnings are divided into two parts i.e., retained earnings and dividend. If the company has profitable investment options then, it would like to retain the earnings and reinvest rather than distribute it as dividend.

But in the given case, the condition is not favourable for reinvesting. Thus, the board may take the residual decision which means the company will pay dividends to the shareholders as the reinvestment is not profitable.

Question 8.
Calculate the Debt Service Coverage Ratio of Murari Ltd. from the information given below
Profit After Tax (PAT) ₹ 3,75,000 Depreciation for the Year ₹ 52,000 Interest Payments ₹ 65,000 Dividend paid to Preference Shareholders ₹ 20,000 Repayment of Loan ₹ 15,000.
Answer:
Debt Service Coverage Ratio

Long Answer (LA) Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 9.
Ela is running a successful business of providing high-end beauty services to the upper section of society. Her parlour boasts innovative beauty products. She has an in-house training programme for new employees. Also, she believes in high standards of performance and shares her profits with her employees. She also gives them yearly bonus and salary hikes. But still she feels that her employees are not as motivated as she wants them to be.
(i) Are financial incentives the only way to motivate employees?
(ii) What are non-monetary incentives?
(iii) State and explain any three non-monetary incentives which contribute to better performance of employees.
Or
Staffing is one of the most complex and crucial step which ensures success of any business organisation. Staffing requires a lot of time and efforts. Briefly explain first five steps involved in the process of staffing.
Answer:
(i) No, finandal incentives are not the only way to motivate employees. Employees can also be motivated with the help of non-monetary incentives.

(ii) Non-monetary Incentives These are not directly related with money. These incentives help in the satisfaction of top hierarchy needs like respect, self-actualisation, etc.

(iii) Following are the important types of non-monetary incentives (any three)
(a) Status It means the position or rank of a person in the organisation. It can be high or low.
The rank of an employee is diredly linked with his authority, responsibility and other fadlities
(e.g., A separate cabin, costly furniture, car, peon, PA, etc).
Everybody has a wish for a higher status. Therefore, the employees can be motivated by raising their rank or position. The attainment of a higher status fulfils the psychological, sodal and esteem needs.

(b) Career Advancement Opportunity Every employee of the organisation wants to advance in his life. Promotion is an important example of advancement. When the avenues for promotion are available, the employees certainly get motivated.

(c) Employee Recognition Programmes Every employee wishes to be considered as an important part of the organisation. It means that he should have his own identity and he should appear to be distinctive. The manager should distribute work among the employees in such a manner which gives a feeling to every employee that his work is spedal and he alone is capable of doing it. By getting such kind of importance, they are motivated and work harder in a more responsible manner.

(d) Employee Participation Employees get encouraged if they are allowed to participate in managerial works. Therefore, they offer their full cooperation in making successful the policies prepared with their help.
Or
First five steps in the process of staffing are as follows

(i) Estimating Manpower Requirements It refers to finding out the number of persons or employees and type of employees needed in the organisation in the near future. As both overstaffing and understaffing are undesirable, the manager tries to find out the manpower requirement by equating workload analysis to workforce analysis.

(ii) Recruitment It refers to the process of inducing people to apply for the job in the organisation. After assessing the number and type of required employees, the manager tries to get greater number of applicants for the job, so that the organisation can select better candidates.

(iii) Selection It refers to the choosing of most suitable candidate to fill the vacant job position. Selection is done through a process, which involves tests, interviews, etc.

(iv) Placement and Orientation In this step, employee occupies the position or is placed, for which he/she has been selected. After this, a brief presentation about the company is given and employee is introduced to his superiors, subordinates and colleagues.

(v) Training and Development In this step, training is imparted to the selected candidate, by which he/she can enhance his/her skills, knowledge and through this, one can also explore the opportunities for future growth.

Question 10.
Nirjhar is the production head of a leading jewellery house. He oversees the work of the whole factory which employs about 100 workers. Since, the raw material used are costly metals and stones like gold, silver, kadium, diamonds, rubies, etc, he has to exercise extreme control and diligence.

Many a times he feels overburdened by his work. Also, there are frequent cases of theft and spoilage.
All this has led him to the conclusion that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. So, he decided to follow the managerial principle of control by exception.
(i) What do you understand by control by exception?
(ii) Give its merits also.
Or
HR manager of Diva Ltd. has sent a notice to Abhipriya that she is now promoted to senior accountant position due to her dedication and perseverance.
Identify the type of communication held between HR Manager and Abhipriya.
Also write its two advantages and two disadvantages.
Answer:
(i) Control by exception suggests that managers should first handle the deviations, which are beyond the specific range and he should not waste time and energy in finding solutions of minor deviations.

(ii) Merits of management by exception are
(a) It saves time and effort of managers as they deal with major deviations only.
(b) There is better utilisation of managerial talent.
(c) Timely action helps to keep the organisation on right track.
(d) It facilitates delegation of authority and increases morale when routine problems are left to subordinates.
Or
The type of communication held between HR Manager and Abhipriya is formal communication. Advantages of formal communication are as follows (any two)
(i) The source of information can be easily traced.
(ii) It is very systematic and there is orderly flow of information.
(iii) Responsibilities can be easily fixed as source of information is known.

Disadvantages of formal communication are as follows (any two)
(i) Information may not be transmitted accurately to avoid unfavourable effect of communication.
(ii) The information is usually passed in impersonal manner.
(iii) Managers cannot get true and accurate response of subordinates.

Question 11.
The role of financial management cannot be underestimated, since it has a direct bearing on the financial health of a business. The importance of financial decisions can be judged by the fact, that almost all items of financial statements disaffected by them. In the light of the above, explain any two functions of financial management.
Answer:
The functions of financial management related to three major decisions which every finance manager has to take. The essential functions of financial management are (any two).

(i) Investment Decision : This decision relates to careful selection of assets in which funds will be invested by the firms. A firm has many options to invest their funds but firm has to select the most appropriate investment which will bring maximum benefit for the firm and deciding or selecting most appropriate proposal is investment decision.

(ii) Financing Decision : Finance manager has to take this decision by deciding the source of finance. A company can raise finance from various sources i.e., by issue of shares, debentures or by taking loans and advances. Deciding how much to raise from which source is the concern of financing decision. The main sources of finance can be divided into two categories which are given below.

• Owner’s fund
• Borrowed fund

(iii) Dividend Decision : This decision is concerned with distribution of surplus funds. The profit of the firm is distributed among various parties, such as creditors, employees, debenture holders, shareholders, etc. The surplus profit is either distributed to equity shareholders in the form of dividend or kept aside in the form of retained earnings. Under dividend decision, the finance manager decides, how much to be distributed in the form of dividend and how much to keep aside as retained earnings.

Question 12.
Shreyam purchased gold bangles for ₹ 3,00,000 without cash memo, from one of their relatives Ravi on occasion of her daughter’s wedding.

Ravi also guaranteed her about the purity of gold but after 8 months when her daughter Ritika went to PC Jewellers to sell her jewellery due to financial crunch, she discovered that gold has lot of zinc, copper and silver. They also told her that bangles don’t have any hallmark. When she approached her relative Ravi, he refused to change her bangles.

(i) Name the mark one should look for while purchasing gold jewellery.
(ii) Name the redressal agency under the Consumer Protection Act where Ritika can file the complaint.
(iii) State the responsibilities that should have been exercised by Shreyam while purchasing gold bangles.
All this has led him to the conclusion that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. So, he decided to follow the managerial principle of control by exception.
(i) What do you understand by control by exception?
(ii) Give its merits also.
Or
HR manager of Diva Ltd. has sent a notice to Abhipriya that she is now promoted to senior accountant position due to her dedication and perseverance.
Identify the type of communication held between HR Manager and Abhipriya.
Also write its two advantages and two disadvantages.
Answer:

• While purchasing gold jewellery, one should look for Hallmark.
• She cannot file a complaint as her mother did not take cash memo while purchasing gold bangles.
• Following responsibilities should have been exercised by Shreyam

(a) Shreyam should have insisted on cash memo as it is the evidence or proof that consumer has paid for the goods or services.

(b) Shreyam should not blindly believe on the words of Ravi. She must insist on getting full information on the quality, quantity, utility, etc of the goods or services.

(c) Shreyam should have look for ISI mark. Thus, choosing only quality goods which can discourage black-marketing and adulteration done by sellers like Ravi.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Science Chapter 10 Gravitation are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Gravitation. https://www.cbselabs.com/ncert-exemplar-class-9-science-chapter-10/

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Gravitation

Multiple Choice  Questions

Question 1.
Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of moon would
(a) have same velocities at any instant
(b) have different accelerations
(c) experience forces of same magnitude
(d) undergo a change in their inertia
Solution:
(a) For the two /objects, of different masses falling freely near the surface of moon,
u = 0 and a = g_M
v = u + at =g_M^t
At any instant of time, both will have same velocity.

Question 2.
The value of acceleration due to gravity
(a) is same on equator and pole?
(b) is least on poles
(c) is least on equator
(d) increases from pole to equator
Solution:
(c) Acceleration due to gravity, \(g=G \frac{M}{R^{2}}\)
As the radius of the earth is smaller at the poles as compared to the equator, the value of g is greater at the poles and is least on equator.

Question 3.
The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both objects are halved without changing distance between them, then the
gravitational force would become
(a) F/4
(b) F/2
(c) F
(d) 2 F
Solution:
(a): Let the masses of two objects be ml
and m2 placed at d distance apart.
So\(, F=G \frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{d^{2}}\)
When the masses of two objects are halved,
\(F^{\prime}=G \frac{\frac{m_{1}}{2} \cdot \frac{m_{2}}{2}}{d^{2}}=G \frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{4 d^{2}}=\frac{F}{4}\)

Question 4.
A boy is whirling a stone tied with a string in an horizontal circular path. If the string breaks, the stone
(a) will continue to move in the circular path
(b) will move along a straight line towards the centre of the circular path
(c) will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path
(d) will move along a straight line perpendicular to the circular path away from the boy
Solution:
(c) If the string breaks, the force that was causing it to move along a circular path, i.e., centripetal force is no longer there, so the stone will move along a straight line tangential to the circular path.

Question 5.
An object is put one by one in three liquids having different densities. The object floats 12 3
with 1/9,2/11 and 3/7 parts of their volumes outside
the liquid surface in liquids of densities d1r d2 and d3 respectively. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) d₁ > d₂ > d₃
(b) d₁>d₂< d₃
(c) d₁<d₂>d₃
(d) d₁<d₂<d₃
Solution:
(d) When an object floats in liquid, a buoyant force acts on it, which is equal to the weight of liquid displaced by that object. As more part of object’s volume floats outside the liq^O&ftore is the buoyant force and higher is the density of liquid.
So,\(d_{1}<d_{2}<d_{3}\left(\because \frac{1}{9}<\frac{2}{11}<\frac{3}{7}\right)\)

Question 6.
In the relation F=GM m/d2, the quantity G
(a) depends on the value of g at the place of observation
(b) is used only when the earth is one of the two masses
(c) is greatest at the surface of the earth
(d) is universal constant of nature
Solution:
(d) In the relation \(F=G \frac{M m}{d^{2}}\),the quantity G is universal constant of nature.

Question 7.
Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between
(a) the earth and a point mass only
(b) the earth and sun only
(c) any two bodies having some mass
(d) two charged bodies only
Solution:
(c) Law of gravitation gives the gravitational force between any two bodies having some mass as it is a universal law.

Question 8.
The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation
(a) depends on mass of earth only
(b) depends on radius of earth only
(c) depends on both mass and radius of earth
(d) is independent of mass and radius of the earth
Solution:
(d) The value of quantity G in the law of gravitation is independent of mass and radius of the earth.

Question 9.
Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is doubled, keeping the distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be
(a) 1/4 times
(b) 4 times
(c) 1/2 times
(d) unchanged
Solution:
So, the gravitational force between the two particles will become 4 times.

Question 10.
The atmosphere is held to the earth by
(a) gravity
(b) wind
(c) clouds
(d) earth’s magnetic field
Solution:
(a) The atmosphere is held to the earth by gravity.

Question 11.
The force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is called
(a) gravitational potential
(b) acceleration due to gravity
(c) gravitational field
(d) universal gravitational constant
Solution:
(d) \(F=G \frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{d^{2}}\)
F = G, i.e., the force of attraction between two unit point masses separated by a unit distance is universal gravitational constant.

Question 12.
The weight of an object at the centre of the earth of radius R is
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) R times the weight at the surface of the earth
(d) 1/R2 times the weight at surface of the earth
Solution: (a): Acceleration due to gravity (g) is zero at the centre of earth. Therefore the weight of an object at the centre of earth = mg = m x 0 = 0.

Question 13.
An object weighs 10 N in air. When immeped fully in water, it weighs only 8 N. The weight of the liquid displaced by the object will be
(a) 2N
(b) 8 N
(c) 10N
(d) 12 N
Solution:
(a) Weight in air = 10 N Weight in water = 8 N
The weight of the liquid displaced by the object = Loss in weight of the object = 10N-8N = 2N.

Question 14.
A girl stands on a box having 60 cm length, 40 cm breadth and 20 cm width in three ways. In which of the following cases, pressure exerted by the brick will be
(a) maximum when length and breadth form the base
(b) maximum when breadth and width form the base
(c) maximum when width and length form the base
(d) the same in all the above three cases
Solution:
(b) As pressure=force/area=weight/area
Weight of girl is same in all the three cases. So, the pressure exerted by the brick will be maximum when area is least, i.e., when breadth and width rorm the base.

Question 15.
An apple falls from a tree because of gravitational attraction between the earth and apple. If F, is the magnitude of force exerted by the earth on the apple and F2 is the magnitude of force exerted by apple on earth, then
(a) F₁ is very much greater than F₂
(b)F₂ is very much greater than F₁
(c)F₁ is only a little greater than F₂
(d)F₁ and F₂ are equal
Solution:
(d) F₁ and F₂ are equal as Newton’s law of gravitation obeys the Newton’s third law of motion, i.e., if an object exerts a force on another object, then the second object exerts an equal and opposite force on the first object.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 16.
What is the source of centripetal force that a planet requires to revolve around the sun? On i what factors does that force depend?
Solution:
A planet requires centripetal force to revolve around the sun which is provided by the gravitational force of sun on the planet.
As \(F=G \frac{M_{s} M_{p}}{r^{2}}\) the force depends on the mass of sun (M_s), mass of planet (M_P) and the distance between the two (r).

Question 17.
On the earth, a stone is thrown from a height in a direction parallel to the earth’s surface while another stone is simultaneously dropped from the same height. Which stone would reach the ground first and why?
Solution:
A stone is thrown from a height in a direction parallel to earth’s surface, i.e., the stone is given initial velocity in the horizontal direction.
For vertical motion of the stone, u = 0, a – g and s = h
Using \(s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2}\),
we get\(t=\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}\),
Similarly, for the second stone, vertical motion is same as that of first. So, both the stones would reach the ground simultaneously.

Question 18.
Suppose gravity of earth suddenly becomes zero, then in which direction will the moon begin to move if no other celestial body affects it?
Solution:
The circular motion of the moon around earth is due to the centripetal force provided by gravitational force of earth. Therefore,
when gravity of earth suddenly becomes zero, the moon will begin to move in a straight line in the direction in which it was moving at that instant. That is the moon will move along the tangent to the circular orbit at that instant.

Question 19.
Identical packets are dropped from two aeroplanes, one above the equator and the other above the north pole, both at height h.
Assuming all conditions are identical, will those packets take same time to reach the surface of earth. Justify your answer.
Solution:
The value of acceleration due to gravity is greater at the poles than at the equator. So, the packet dropped at north pole from a height h, will accelerate more than the packet dropped at equator from the same height and hence will reach the surface of earth earlier.

Question 20.
The weight of any person on the moon is about 1 /6 times that on the earth. He can lift a mass of 15 kg on the earth. What will be the maximum mass, which can be lifted by the same force applied by the person on the moon?
Solution:

Question 21.
Calculate the average density of the earth in terms of g, G and R.
Solution:

Question 22.
The earth is acted upon by gravitation of sun, even though it does not fall into the sun. Why?
Solution:
if The gravitational force of sun on earth is utilised in providing it centripetal force which is required for revolution around the sun. Hence, the earth does not fall in to the sun.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 23.
How does the weight of an object vary with respect to mass and radius of the earth. In a hypothetical case, if the diameter of the earth becomes half of its present value and its mass becomes four times of its present value, then how would the weight of any object on the surface of the earth be affected?
Solution:
Weight of an object of mass m,

Weight varies directly with respect to mass of earth, W∝ M and inversely with respect to radius of earth,

When diameter of the earth becomes half, radius of earth also becomes half and mass becomes 4 times of its initial value, then

i.e., weight will become 16 times its initial value.

Question 24.
How does the force of attraction between the two bodies depend upon their masses and distance between them? A student thought that two bricks tied together would fall faster than a single one under the action of gravity. Do you agree with his hypothesis or not? Comment.
Solution:
From Newton’s law of gravitation, force of attraction between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses, and inversely proportional to the square of distance between their centres i.e.,

Student’s hypothesis is wrong. As acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the falling body, therefore, the two bricks tied together, falls with same speed as the single one to reach the ground at the same time under the action of gravity.

Question 25.
Two objects of masses m, and m2 having the same size are dropped simultaneously from heights h, and h2 respectively. Find out the ratio of time they would take in reaching the ground. Will this ratio remain the same if (i) one of the objects is hollow and the other one is solid and (ii) both of them are hollow, size remaining the same in each case. Give reason.
Solution:

Yes, the ratio remains the same in both the cases as this ratio is independent of mass and size of the objects.

Question 26.
(a) A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution. In which case will it experience a greater buoyant force. If each side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm and then immersed in water, what will be the effect on the buoyant force experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water. Give reason for each case.
(b) A ball weighing 4 kg of density 4000 kg m s^-3 is completely immersed in water of density 103 kg nrr3. Find the force of buoyancy on it. (Given g = 10 m s^-2 .)
Solution:
(a) The cube will experience a greater buoyant force in saturated salt solution than in water as the density of saturated salt solution is greater than that of water.
As buoyant force = weight of liquid displaced by the object =Vag (a is density of liquid) As each side of the cube is reduced to 4 cm from 5 cm, so volume of cube decreases and hence the buoyant force also decreases.
(b) Here, Mass of ball, m = 4 kg Density of ball, ρ= 4000 kg m^-3 Density of water σ=10³ kg m^-3

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