Category: CBSE

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following states of India experiences floods frequently?
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) Assam
(d) Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
(c) Assam

Question 1(ii).
In which one of the following districts of Uttaranchal did Malpa Landslide disaster take place?
(a) Bageshwar
(b) Champawat
(c) Almora
(d) Pithoragarh.
Answer:
(d) Pithoragarh.

Question 1(iii).
Which one of the following states receives floods in the winter months?
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu.

Question 1(iv).
In which of the following rivers is the Majuli River Island situated?
(a) Ganga
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Godavari
(d) Indus.
Answer:
(b) Brahmaputra

Question 1(v).
Under which type of natural hazards do blizzards come?
(a) Atmospheric
(b) Aquatic
(c) Terrestrial
(d) Biological.
Answer:
(a) Atmospheric

2. Answer the following questions in less than 30 words.

Question 2(i).
When can a hazard become a disaster?
Answer:
A hazard becomes a disaster when either there are no mitigating circumstances to prevent the disaster from happening or the mitigating circumstances fail. For example, if there are floods which lead to great loss of life and property, it will be called disaster. But if through GPS, it was pre-informed and evacuation was successful, it will be a hazard but not a disaster.

Question 2(ii).
Why are there more earthquakes in the Himalayas and in the north-eastern region of India?
Answer:
Indian plate is moving at a speed of one centimetre per year towards the north and northeastern direction and this movement of plates is being constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north. As a result of this, both the plates are said to be locked with each other resulting in accumulation of energy at different points of time. Excessive accumulation of energy results in building up of stress, which ultimately leads to the breaking up of the lock and the sudden release of energy causes earthquakes along the Himalayan arch.

Question 2(iii).
What are the basic requirements for the formation of a cyclone?
Answer:
Following are the basic requirements for the formation of cyclones:

• Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
• Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre because absence of Coriolis force near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclone between 0°-5° latitude.
• Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a cyclone develops.
• Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

Question 2(iv).
How are the floods in Eastern India different from the ones in Western India?
Answer:
Important rivers of Eastern India are Brahmaputra, Ganga, Damodar, Mahanadi, Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari. In western India, important rivers are Luni, Mahi, Narmada and Tapti. In eastern India floods occur more frequently as compared to Western India because more rainfall takes place in eastern India as compared to western India. Moreover, floods of eastern India are more severe in comparison of western India floods.

Question 2(v).
Why are there more droughts in Central and Western India?
Answer:
In central and western India less rainfall takes place. Due to this, water scarcity takes place. Less rainfall, excessive evaporation, scarcity in ground water and water bodies create conditions of drought. Western India consists of deserts and central India has plateaus and in both regions ground water level is less. It creates drought conditions.

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 125 words.

Question 3(i).
Identify the Landslide-prone regions of India and suggest some measures to mitigate the disasters caused by these.
Answer:
Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris, the north-eastern regions, along with areas that experience frequent ground-shaking due to earthquakes, etc. and areas of intense human activities, particularly those related to construction of roads, dams, etc. are highly prone to landslides.

Areas that have almost similar conditions to those included in the very high vulnerability zone are also included in this category. The only difference between these two is the combination, intensity and frequency of the controlling factors. All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones.

Subsidence are most common in states like Jharkhand. Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.

Measures for Mitigation

• Promoting large-scale afforestation programmes.
• Construction of bunds to reduce the flow of water.
• Terrace farming should be encouraged in the north-eastern hill states.
• Restriction on the construction and other developmental activities such as roads and dams, limiting agriculture to valleys and areas with moderate slopes, and control on the development of large settlements in the high vulnerability zones, should be enforced.

Question 3(ii).
What is vulnerability? Divide India into natural disaster vulnerability zones based on droughts and suggest some mitigation measures.
Answer:
Vulnerability refers to the risk of becoming a victim to a disaster. Those areas which are more prone to natural calamities are more vulnerable.
On the basis of severity of droughts, India can be divided into the following regions:

1. Extreme Drought Affected Areas: Most parts of Rajasthan, particularly areas to the west of the Aravali hills, i.e. Marusthali and Kachchh regions of Gujarat fall in this category. Included here are also the districts like Jaisalmer and Barmer from the Indian desert that receive less that 90 mm average annual rainfall.

2. Severe Drought Prone Area: Parts of eastern Rajasthan, most parts of Madhya Pradesh, eastern parts of Maharashtra, interior parts of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka Plateau, northern parts of interior Tamil Nadu and southern parts of Jharkhand and interior Odisha are included in this category.

3. Moderate Drought Affected Area: Northern parts of Rajasthan, Haryana, southern districts of Uttar Pradesh, the remaining parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra except Konkan, Jharkhand and Coimbatore plateau of Tamil Nadu and interior Karnataka are included in this category. The remaining parts of India can be considered either free or less prone to the drought.

Remedial Measures

• Provision for the distribution of safe drinking water, medicines for the victims and availability of fodder and water for the cattle and shifting of the people and their livestock to safer places, etc.
• Identification of ground water potential in the form of aquifers, transfer of river water from the surplus to the deficit areas, and particularly planning for inter-linking of rivers and construction of reservoirs and dams, etc.
• Remote sensing and satellite imageries can be useful in identifying the possible river-basins that can be inter-linked and in identifying the ground water potential.
• Rainwater harvesting can also be an effective method in minimising the effects of drought.

Question 3(iii).
When can developmental activities become the cause of disasters?
Answer:
Development has created many such problems whereby disasters occur. There are some activities carried by human beings that are directly responsible for disasters.

• Industrial development: Bhopal Gas tragedy, Chernobyl nuclear disaster, wars, release of CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) etc are examples where industrial development has created disasters.
• Pollution: Increase of green house gases, environmental pollutions like noise, air, water and soil are some of the disasters which are caused directly by human actions.
• Deforestation: There are some other activities of human beings that accelerate or intensify disasters indirectly. Landslides and floods due to deforestation, unscientific land use and construction activities in fragile areas are some of the disasters that are the results of indirect human actions.

Project/ Activity

Prepare a project report on any one of the topics given below:
(i) Malpa landslide
(ii) Tsunami
(iii) Odisha and Gujarat Cyclones
(iv) Inter-linking of rivers
(v) Tehri Dam/Sardar Sarovar
(vi) Bhuj/Latur Earthquakes
(vii) Life in a delta
(viii) Prepare a model of rooftop rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Rapid sliding of large mass of bedrocks is called:
(a) Erosion
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Landslides.
Answer:
(d) Landslides.

Question 2.
In how many regions has India been divided on the basis of proneness to earthquake?
(a) Five Regions
(b) Seven Regions
(c) Eight Regions
(d) Ten Regions.
Answer:
(a) Five Regions

Question 3.
From the point of view of earthquake, which areas of India are most vulnerable?
(a) Northern Himalayas and Kachchh
(b) North-eastern India
(c) Northern Plains
(d) Peninsular India.
Answer:
(a) Northern Himalayas and Kachchh

Question 4.
Natural calamities which cause heavy loss to life and property are called:
(a) Famine
(b) Disaster
(c) Calamity
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Disaster

Question 5.
The centre of the cyclone is mostly a warm and low-pressure, cloudless core known as:
(a) Storm Surge
(b) Eye of the storm
(c) Cyclone
(d) Jet Stream.
Answer:
(b) Eye of the storm

Question 6.
Which regions have highest number of landslides?
(a) Plateau regions
(b) Mountainous regions
(c) Coastal Regions
(d) Desert regions.
Answer:
(b) Mountainous regions

Question 7.
Which region of India is most prone to drought?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Coastal Regions.
Answer:
(a) Rajasthan

Question 8.
Natural changes which have side effects on human life are called:
(a) Common Hazards
(b) Manmade hazards
(c) Natural Hazards
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Natural Hazards

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a natural calamity?
(a) Earthquake
(b) Drought
(c) Fire Borne
(d) Tsunami.
Answer:
(c) Fire Borne

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a flood prone area?
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(d) Rajasthan.

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a earthquake prone area?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) East Coast.
Answer:
(d) East Coast.

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a landslide-prone area?
(a) Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Steep slopes in the Western Ghats
(c) Nilgiris in the north-eastern regions,
(d) Aravali regions in Rajasthan.
Answer:
(d) Aravali regions in Rajasthan.

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a type of drought?
(a) Meteorological Drought
(b) Agricultural Drought
(c) Hydrological Drought
(d) Desert Drought
Answer:
(d) Desert Drought

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are natural calamities?
Answer:
Natural calamities are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the potential to cause harm to people or propertv or both.

Question 2.
Name some common natural calamities.
Answer:
Some important natural disasters are earthquake, floods, tsunamis, drought, landslides, cyclones, volcanoes, tornado, hailstorms, dust storms, hurricanes, etc.

Question 3.
What is a disaster?
Answer:
Disaster is an undesirable occurrence resulting from forces that are largely outside human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, which causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property including death and injury to a large number of people, and requires therefore, mobilisation of efforts in excess of that which are normally provided by statutory emergency services.

Question 4.
What is the unit of measuring earthquake?
Answer:
Richter scale is the unit of measuring earthquake.

Question 5.
Name the states of India having high risk of earthquake.
Answer:
Areas of North-eastern states, Darbhanga and Araria along the Indo- Nepal border in Bihar, Uttarakhand, Western Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir Valley in the Himalayan region and the Kutch (Gujarat), Northern parts of Punjab, Eastern parts of Haryana, Delhi, Western Uttar Pradesh, and Northern Bihar fall under the High Damage Risk Zone.

Question 6.
Mention the speed of cyclones.
Answer:
Cyclones move with a speed of 20 km per hour. As it moves further, its energy keeps on reducing. Its duration is 5 to 7 days.

Question 7.
Name flood prone areas of India.
Answer:
Assam, West Bengal and Bihar are among the high flood-prone states of India. Apart from these, most of the rivers in the northern states like Punjab and Uttar Pradesh are also vulnerable to occasional floods.

Question 8.
Mention three causes due to which flood affected areas have increased in India.
Answer:
Three causes due to which flood affected areas have increased in India:

• Deforestation
• Barrier in flow of water by means of transport and buildings.
• Construction of dams.

Question 9.
What is disaster management?
Answer:
Disaster management is inclusive of all those processes and preparations which are undertaken to mitigate the losses from disasters. It includes steps that should be taken before disaster, during disaster and after disaster.

Question 10.
On the basis of origin, in how many groups are calamities categorized?
Answer:
On the basis of origin, natural disasters have been classified into four groups:

1. Atmospheric: Thunderstorm, Tornado, Drought, Hailstorm
2. Terrestrial: Earthquake, Volcanic Eruption, Avalanches, Soil Erosion
3. Aquatic: Floods, Tidal Waves, Storm Surge, Tsunami
4. Biological: Viral Diseases, Plants and Animals as colonisers.

Question 11.
National Institute of Disaster Management, have made an intensive analysis of more than 1,200 earthquakes that have occurred in India in different years in the past and has divided into how many zones?
Answer:
National Geophysical Laboratory, Geological Survey of India, Department of Meteorology, Government of India, along with the recently formed National Institute of Disaster Management, have made an intensive analysis of more than 1,200 earthquakes that have occurred in India in different years in the past, and based on these, they divided India into the following five earthquake zones:

1. Very high damage risk zone
2. High damage risk zone
3. Moderate damage risk zone
4. Low damage risk zone
5. Very low damage risk zone.

Question 12.
Expand IDNDR.
Answer:
International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction.

Question 13.
How can we control floods?
Answer: Construction of flood protection embankments in the flood-prone areas, construction of dams, afforestation and discouraging major construction activities in the upper reaches of most of the flood-creating rivers, etc. are some measures to control floods.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a landslide? What are its effects on human life?
Answer:
A form of mass movement in which rock and debris moves rapidly down the slope under the influence of gravity as a result of failure along a shear plane.
It affects human life quite adversely:

• It leads to floods.
• It leads to loss of life and property.
• It leads to failure of transport and communication system.
• It leads to hurdles in economic activities and destruction of natural beauty.

Question 2.
What are the conditions for cyclone?
Answer:
Following are the basic requirements for the formation of cyclones:

• Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
• Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre because absence of Coriolis force near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclone between 0°-5° latitude.
• Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a cyclone develops.
• Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

Question 3.
Give measures to mitigate the impact of cyclones.
Answer:
Following measures can be taken to mitigate the impact of cyclones:

• We need to improve our Geographical Positioning System (GPS) to provide timely information;
• Construction of dams, coast lines and water bodies.
• Planting of trees in coastal areas;
• By providing beforehand information.

Question 4.
How can we mitigate the effect of earthquakes?
Answer:
We can take following steps to mitigate the effect of earthquake:

• Establishing earthquake monitoring centres for regular monitoring and fast dissemination of information.
• Use of Geographical Positioning System (GPS).
• Preparing a vulnerability map of the country and dissemination of vulnerability risk information.
• Modifying the house types and building-designs in the vulnerable areas and discouraging construction of high-rise buildings, large industrial establishments and big urban centres in such areas.

Question 5.
Explain the effects of landslides.
Answer:
Effects of landslides are as follows:

• Landslides have relatively small and localised area of direct influence, but roadblock, destruction of railway lines and channel- blocking due to rock-falls have far-reaching consequences.
• Diversion of river courses due to landslides can also lead to flood and loss of life and property.
• It also makes spatial interaction difficult, risky as well as a costly affair, which, in turn, adversely affects the developmental activities in these areas.

Question 6.
Explain the effects of drought.
Answer:
Droughts has many side effects:

• It leads to shortage of food grains, fodder and water.
• It leads to crop failure creating scarcity of food grains (akal), fodder (trinkal), inadequate rainfall, resulting in shortage of water (jalkal).
• Large-scale death of cattle and other animals, migration of humans and livestock.
• Scarcity of water compels people to consume contaminated water resulting in spread of many waterborne diseases like gastro-enteritis, cholera, hepatitis, etc.

Question 7.
How can we mitigate the effects of floods?
Answer:
We can mitigate the effects of floods in the following ways:

• Dams are built along rivers to regulate the flow of water.
• Connect with hydroelectric power plants.
• Rivers should be dredged and their beds need to be laid deeper.
• Reservoirs are built to hold back water and control the flow of small rivers.

Question 8.
Discuss socio-environmental effects of earthquake.
Answer:
Following are the socio-environmental effects of earthquake.

• Surface waves produce fissures on the earth’s surface. Earthquakes are responsible for landslides and often these cause obstructions in the flow of rivers and channel resulting in the formation of reservoirs.
• It not only damages and destroys the settlements, infrastructure, transport and communication network, industries and other developmental activities but also robs the population of their material and socio-cultural gains that they have preserved over generations.
• It renders them homeless, which puts an extra-pressure and stress, particularly on the weak economy of the developing countries.

Question 9.
What are the ways to mitigate instances of landslides?
Answer:
It is always advisable to adopt area- specific measures to deal with landslides,

• Restriction on the construction and other developmental activities such as roads and dams, limiting agriculture to valleys and areas with moderate slopes, and control on the development of large settlements in the high vulnerability zones, should be enforced.
• Some positive actions like promoting large-scale afforestation programmes and construction of bunds to reduce the flow of water should be taken.
• Terrace farming should be encouraged in the north-eastern hill states.

Question 10.
Explain the spatial distribution of tropical cyclones in India.
Answer:
Owing to its Peninsular shape surrounded by the Bay of Bengal in the east and the Arabian Sea in the west, the tropical cyclones in India also originate in these two important locations.

• Most of the cyclones originate between 10°-15° north latitudes during the monsoon season.
• The Bay of Bengal cyclones mostly develop during the months of October and November.
• They originate between 16°-2° N latitudes and to the west of 92° E.
• By July, the place of origin of these storms shifts to around 18° N latitude and west of 90°E near the Sunderban Delta.

Question 11.
Differentiate between:
1. Natural Hazards and Natural Disaster.
2. Manmade disaster and Natural
Answer:
1.

Basis	Natural Hazards	Natural disaster
Meaning	Natural Hazards are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the potential to cause harm to people or property or both.	Natural Disaster is an undesirable occurrence resulting from forces that are largely outside human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, which causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property including death and injury to a large number of people, and requires therefore, mobilisation of efforts in excess of that which are normally provided by statutory emergency services.
Scope	Every natural hazard is not a disaster.	Every natural disaster is a natural hazard.
Example	USA facing -50 degree temperature every year. It is a hazard but due to preparedness, it never becomes a disaster.	Tsunami occurred in 2004 proved to be a great disaster.

2.

Basis	Manmade Disaster	Natural disaster
Meaning	Manmade disasters are undesirable occurrences resulting from human actions.	Natural Disaster is an undesirable occurrence resulting from forces that are largely outside human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, which causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property.
Example	Bomb blast, industrial explosions, wars, fire accidents, etc.	Earthquake, landslides, cyclones, floods, droughts, etc.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain about different types of drought.
Answer:
Different types of droughts are as follows:

• Meteorological Drought: It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
• Agricultural Drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the drought-prone category.
• Hydrological Drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish.
• Ecological Drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem. Various parts of India experience these droughts recurrently which result in some serious socio-economic and ecological problems.

Question 2.
On the basis of past experiences, frequency and certain causal relationships with the controlling factors like geology, geomorphic agents, slope, land-use, vegetation cover and human activities, India has been divided into how many zones?
Answer:
On the basis of past experiences, frequency and certain causal relationships with the controlling factors like geology, geomorphic agents, slope, land-use, vegetation cover and human activities, India has been divided into a number of zones.

1. Very High Vulnerability Zone: Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris, the north-eastern regions, along with areas that experience frequent ground-shaking due to earthquakes, etc. and areas of intense human activities, particularly those related to construction of roads, dams, etc. are very highly vulnerable.

2. High Vulnerability Zone: Areas that have almost similar conditions to those included in the very high vulnerability zone are also included in this category. All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones.

3. Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone: Areas that receive less precipitation such as Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti, undulated yet stable relief and low precipitation areas in the Aravali, rain shadow areas in the Western and Eastern Ghats and Deccan plateau also experience occasional landslides. Landslides due to mining and subsidence are most common in states like Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.

4. Other Areas: The remaining parts of India, particularly states like Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Assam and Coastal regions of the southern States are safe as far as landslides are concerned.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Hots Questions

Question 1.
Development may be disastrous. How?
Answer:
When the drive for economic growth occurs without regard to hazard profiles, existing mitigation technologies, and ongoing risk reduction programs, an increase in overall disaster risk results. Unsafe and unwise development practices lead to increased and additional risk factors, and often times result in an elimination of existing man¬made and natural risk protections. For example, in many coastal communities where development of the tourism infrastructure leads to the destruction of coral reefs, mangrove forests, wetlands, and dunes, natural protections from storm surges and tsunamis disappear. In the aftermath of the 2004 tsunami in Asia, was wide evidence that the destruction of these natural resources led to increased devastation in some areas over others where the protection was maintained.

Question 2.
Why do the rich countries and the poor countries differ so much in terms of the nature of their disaster consequences?
Answer:
Poor people, and likewise poor countries, tend to be much more vulnerable to events that exceed their capacity to withstand disaster impacts and to respond once a disaster has occurred. They are also much less likely to effectively recover in the aftermath of a disaster event.

1. The interaction between exposure and vulnerability can explain a lot about a country’s disaster profile. The instructor can illustrate the relationship between disasters and vulnerability by providing the students with an example of similar disaster events that occur in two different countries – one that is wealthy and one that is poor.

2. In most wealthy countries, an event of this magnitude causes little damage, very few injuries, and rarely any fatalities. However, in poor countries, it is not uncommon for a seismic event of this scale to cause significant injuries and fatalities.

3. In the wealthy countries, where buildings are constructed to code, and enforcement is effective, vulnerability is low to a magnitude 6.0 event. However, in poor countries, it is not uncommon for structures to be built in an informal fashion (out of traditional materials, including mud and stone, for example), with no consideration or enforcement of resistant building codes. In the event of a moderate earthquake, such as a 6.0 magnitude event, these informal structures can collapse.

4. It is poverty, and the many factors associated with poverty (such as corruption, poor access to building skills, knowledge, and materials, and other reasons), that create the vulnerability gap between the rich and the poor countries.

Question 3.
Disasters limit economic development. How?
Answer:
Disasters wipe out the gains of economic development. Examples include:

1. Hurricane Isaac (1982) – destroyed 22% of Tongo’s housing stock.

2. Mozambique Flood (2000) – resulted in over $165 million in costs to reconstruct and repair damage to water, sanitation, energy, telecommunication, roads and railway infrastructure.

3. Vietnam Flooding – each year in Vietnam, flooding destroys an average of 300,000 tons of food. Catastrophic disasters result in the destruction of a nation’s assets, and interrupt production, trade, investment, and other economic engines. Larger countries, with a greater geographical spread of economic assets relative to the spatial impact of disasters, are more able to avoid direct loss and minimize downstream, indirect or secondary losses.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
How can man survive with earthquakes?
Answer:
Man can survive with earthquakes by taking following precautions:

• When earthquake occurs we should leave the house. If it is not possible to go out of the house stand in four corners of the walls or get inside bed, table etc.
• Switch off all electricity connections in the house.
• There should not be any fire. Put off all types of fire like gas stove must be switched off.
• Never drive any vehicle during earthquake.

Question 2.
Explain about disaster management in short.
Answer:
Disasters Management refers to the series of actions undertaken due to cyclones, unlike the ones caused by earthquakes, tsunamis and volcanic eruptions are more predictable in terms of the time and place of their occurrences.

Moreover, with the help of development of techniques to monitor the behaviour of cyclones, their intensity, direction and magnitude, it has become possible to manage the cyclonic hazard to some extent. Construction of cyclone- shelters, embankments, dykes, reservoirs and afforestation to reduce the speed of the winds are some of the steps that can help in minimizing the damages.

• Pre-disaster management involves generating data and information about the disasters, preparing vulnerability zoning maps and spreading awareness among the people about these.
• During disasters, rescue and relief operations such as evacuation, construction of shelters and relief camps, supplying of water, food, clothing and medical aids, etc. should be done on an emergency basis.
• Post-disaster operations should involve rehabilitation and recovery of victims. It should also concentrate on capacity¬building in order to cope up with future disasters.

Question 3.
What are different stages of disaster preparedness and management?
Answer:
There are three stages involved in disaster mitigation and management:

1. Pre-disaster management: It involves generating data and information about the disasters, preparing vulnerability zoning maps and spreading awareness among the people about these. Apart from these, disaster planning, preparedness and preventive measures are other steps that need to be taken in the vulnerable areas.
2. During disasters: During disasters, rescue and relief operations such as evacuation, construction of shelters and relief camps, supplying of water, food, clothing and medical aids etc. should be done on an emergency basis.
3. Post-disaster operations: It should involve rehabilitation and recovery of victims. It should also concentrate on capacity-building in order to cope up with future disasters, if any.

Question 4.
Development can help in disaster management as well as cause management. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Efforts to build upon and improve the social and economic engines, infrastructure, and institutions within a country can either increase or decrease hazard exposure, hazard vulnerability, and risk.

• (i) Practices that incorporate risk reduction methodologies, such as stringent building codes, resistant materials, proper land use planning, and other important mitigation measures and practices, often reduce the likelihood of disaster events or the consequences that result when events do occur.
• Unwise, uncoordinated, or unsafe development can quickly and dramatically increase the disaster risk faced by the people of a country.
• Mass urbanization and coastal migration which occur with little regard to wise building practices – as is often seen in the megacities of the developing world – is a primary contributor to increased risk of development.

Map Skills

Question 1.
Locate and label ten flood-prone areas on an outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Locate and label drought-prone areas on an outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Locate and label earthquake-prone areas on an outline map of India.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Primary Activities

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following is not a plantation crop?
(a) Coffee
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Wheat
(d) Rubber
Answer:
(c) Wheat

Question 1.(ii)
In which one of the following countries co-operative farming was the most successful experiment?
(a) Russia
(b) Denmark
(c) India
(d) The Netherlands
Answer:
(b) Denmark

Question 1.(iii)
Growing of flowers is called:
(a) Truck farming
(b) Factory farming
(c) Mixed fanning
(d) Floriculture
Answer:
(d) Floriculture

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following types of cultivation was developed by European colonists?
(a) Kolkoz
(b) Viticulture
(c) Mixed farming
(d) Plantation
Answer:
(d) Plantation

Question 1.(v)
In which one of the following regions is extensive commercial grain cultivation not practised?
(a) American Canadian prairies
(b) European Steppes
(c) Pampas of Argentina
(d) Amazon Basin
Answer:
(d) Amazon Basin

Question 1.(vi)
In which of the following types of agriculture is the farming of citrus fruit very important?
(a) Market gardening
(b) Mediterranean agriculture
(c) Plantation agriculture
(d) Co-operative farming
Answer:
(b) Mediterranean agriculture

Question 1.(vii)
Which one type of agriculture amongst the following is also called ‘slash and bum agriculture?
(a) Extensive subsistence farming
(b) Primitive subsistence farming
(c) Extensive commercial grain cultivation
(d) Mixed farming
Answer:
(b) Primitive subsistence farming

Question 1.(viii)
Which one of the following does not follow monoculture?
(a) Dairy farming
(b) Mixed farming
(c) Plantation agriculture
(d) Commercial grain farming
Answer:
(b) Mixed farming

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Future of shifting cultivation is bleak. Discuss.
Answer:

• These days the biggest problem being faced by the shifting cultivators is of shortening cycles of jhum, which makes the entire practice unsustainable.
• Also there are several restrictions imposed by governments through forest acts etc., which hinder the free movement of
• tribes and practice of shifting cultivation.
• Shifting cultivation is sustainable (only for self -consumption) in nature, hence it is unable to meet with the market demand and therefore there is no scope for it in the increasing globalized markets.
• With the infiltration of non tribals in the tribal areas, tribals are adopting to modem agricultural practices which are more productive and environmentally sustainable.
• To support a small population, a huge land resource base is required, ultimately it leads to soil erosion and land degradation.

Question 2.(ii)
Market gardening is practiced near urban areas. Why?
Answer:
Market gardening specializes in the cultivation of high value perishable crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers, solely for the urban markets. They are situated close to urban markets mainly because of the high value crops.

The crops are costly, hence they need to be situated close to a market where people have high purchasing power and also demand for high valued crops. In such a situation urban areas are the perfect markets.

These crops are perishable in nature; hence farms cannot be situated far away from the main market. Therefore, farms are situated close to the urban markets so as to prevent crops from getting stale.

Question 2.(iii)
Large scale dairy farming is the result of the development of transportation and refrigeration.
Answer:
Dairy products are highly perishable in nature. They have a very small shelf life. For their supply to overseas and distant markets, adequate storage facilities with regulated temperature and storage conditions is essential. Initially supply of dairy products was limited to nearby markets but development of storage, preservation and transportation facilities have widened their coverage.

Modem transportation such as refrigerated trucks, ships with special cargoes and faster means of transportation like airways provide with adequate facilities, which allow transportation of dairy products to far off markets without spoilage. Refrigeration prevents dairy products from getting spoiled. It increases their durability. Hence dairy products can be sold over far off places.

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Differentiate between Nomadic Herding and Commercial Livestock Rearing.
Answer:

Nomadic Herding	Commercial Livestock Rearing
(i) In nomadic herding herders move with their animals from place to place, and rely on them totally for food, cloth and transportation.	(i) Commercial livestock rearing is a modern practice of rearing animals for export of animal products.
(ii) It is a primitive subsistence activity.	(ii) It is a modern scientific, market oriented activity.
(iii) Multiple animals are kept depending upon the region.	(iii) Single type of animals are kept.
(iv) Herders keep on moving with animals from one place to another according to availability of pasture and water. They also practice transhumance. The area of a tribe is decided by matter of tradition.	(iv) It is carried out on huge permanent ranches which are scientifically managed parcels
(v) Generally related to nomadic tribes	(v) Associated with western developed countries.
(vi) Little or no capital is utilized.	(vi) High capital intake and spent on caring, feeding, breeding of animals.
(vii) Primarily a subsistence activity, in which herder rely on animals for their need of food, cloth, transportation etc.	(vii) It is market oriented activity where animals like horse, sheep are reared to obtain products like meat, hides etc. for sales in national as well as international markets.
(viii) No modern technological support.	(viii) It is highly mechanized

Question 3.(ii)
Discuss the important characteristic features of plantation agriculture. Name a few important plantation crops from different countries.
Answer:
Originally introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics, plantation agriculture is
distinct from other kinds of agricultural practises because of its specific features.
The characteristic features of this type of farming are:

• Profit oriented large-scale production system
• Large estates and plantations
• Huge capital investment
• Totally market oriented
• Scientific method of cultivation
• Cheap and large skilled labour supply
• Monoculture
• It is a link between agriculture and industry.
• They are provided with well-developed transportation facilities where raw material provided by them is processes.

Important Plantation Crops:

• The French established cocoa and coffee plantations in West Africa.
• The British set up
  • Large tea gardens in India and Sri Lanka,
  • Rubber plantations in Malaysia and
  • Sugarcane and banana plantations in West Indies.
• Spanish and Americans invested heavily in coconut and sugarcane plantations in the Philippines.
• The Dutch once had monopoly over sugarcane plantation in Indonesia.
• Some coffee fazendas (large plantations) in Brazil are still managed by Europeans.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which was the first activity carried out by human beings?
Answer:
Hunting and gathering are then oldest activities carried out by human beings.

Question 2.
Who are the red collar workers?
Answer:
People engaged in primary activities are called red collar workers due to the oudoor nature of their work.

Question 3.
Why do the products from gathering activities cannot compete in the world market?
Answer:
Products of these activities cannot compete in the world market as

• Synthetic products of better quality and lower prices have replaced many items supplied by gatherers in the tropical forests, unable to face competition.
• As it is a low technology subsistence activity not much surplus is there.

Question 4.
Which factors affect the choice of animals in different regions of nomadic herding?
Answer:
People living in different climatic conditions domesticate animals found in those regions. They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending upon the amount and quality of water and pasture.

Question 5.
Define nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism.
Answer:
It is a primitive subsistence activity in which the herders rely on their animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport. They move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending upon the amount and quality of water and pasture.

Question 6.
Why is the number of pastoral nomads decreasing?
Answer:
Number of pastoral nomads fias been decreasing and the areas under them are shrinking because of

• imposition of political boundaries
• new settlement plans by different countries.

Question 7.
Name the areas where commercial livestock rearing is practised.
Answer:
The areas are: New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay and United States of America.

Question 8.
Define subsistence agriculture.
Answer:
Subsistence agriculture is the agriculture in which the producers consume most of the products grown. The output is generally for consumption by farmer and his family.

Question 9.
What are the other names of primitive subsistence agriculture?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation and slash and burn agriculture.

Question 10.
What is shifting agriculture known as in the following?
(i) Central America and Mexico
(ii) Indonesia and Malaysia
(iii) North-east India.
Answer:

• Central America and Mexico —Milpa
• Indonesia and Malaysia—Ladang
• North East India—Slash and burn (Jhuming).

Q11.
Give the major plantation crops of the following countries:
(i) Sri Lanka
(ii) West Indies
(iii) Malaysia
(iv) Philippines
Answer:

• Sri Lanka – Tea
• West Indies – Sugarcane and banana
• Malaysia – Rubber plantation
• Philippines – Coconut and sugarcane

Question 12.
What is the plantation crop of Brazil? What is the name given to the plantation farms?
Answer:
The plantation crop of Brazil is coffee and the farms are called Fazendas.

Question 13.
Define viticulture.
Answer:
Viticulture is grape cultivation which is speciality of Mediterranean region.

Question 14.
Define truck farming.
Answer:
It is the type of farming where farmers specialize in and grow vegetables only. The distance of truck farms from the market is governed by the distance a truck can cover overnight.

Question 15.
Define factory farming.
Answer:
Factory farming is a modern development in the industrial regions of West Europe where livestock specially poultry and cattle rearing is done in stalls and pens and fed on manufactured feedstuff and carefully supervised against diseases.

Question 16.
Which country first introduced collective farming?
Answer:
Erstwhile Soviet Union, under the socialist regime first introduced collective farming.

Question 17.
Name two countries where cooperative farming is successful.
Answer:
Cooperative farming has been very successful in Denmark, Netherlands, Belgium, Sweden and Italy. (Any two)

Question 18.
Define mining.
Answer:
Mining is a primary activity which involves the extraction of minerals from surface or beneath the surface of the earth’s crust for further processing.

Question 19.
Define primary activity.
Answer:
All the economic activities which are directly dependent on nature are primary activities. They refer to the utilization of Earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials and minerals, etc. It includes hunting gathering, pastoralism, fishing, lumbering, forestry, agriculture and mining.

Question 20.
What do you mean by economic activities?
Answer:
Human activities which generate income are known as economic activities. Economic activities are broadly grouped into four categories:

• Primary Activities
• Secondary Activities
• Tertiary Activities
• Quaternary Activities

Question 21.
Commercial livestock rearing is a specialized activity. Substantiate.
Answer:
Commercial livestock rearing is a specialized activity because under this only one type of animal is reared. Important animals include sheep, cattle, goats and horses. The products obtained by these animals like meat, skin and wool, hides are processed and packed scientifically to be exported to world markets.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Extensive Commercial Grain Agriculture?
Answer:
In this type of farming, wheat is the principal crop and the size of farm is very large and entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanized.

Question 23.
Why is dairy farming practised mainly near urban and industrial centres?
Answer:
Fresh milk and dairy products produced in the dairy farming are easily sold in the neighborhood urban market. Dairy products are perishable commodities therefore they have to be sold at the earliest. Urban centers are large market for the daily products.

Question 24.
What do you mean by cooperative farming? .
Answer:
Co-operative farming is done under a cooperative society formed by a group of farmers. Under this, all farmers of the society pool in their resources voluntarily for more efficient and profitable farming. Individuals farms remain intact and fanning is a matter of cooperative initiative.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the areas where gathering is practiced.
Answer:

• Gathering is practiced in regions with harsh climatic conditions.
• Generally primitive societies who extract plant and animal products to satisfy their need for food, shelter and clothing, practise it.

It is practised in High latitude zones of Northern Canada, Northern Eurasia and Southern Chile, Low latitude zones of Amazon basin, Tropical Africa, Northern fringe of Australia, interior parts of South East Asia.

Question 2.
List different animals kept in different regions as far as nomadic herding is concerned.
Answer:
A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions. In tropical Africa, cattle are the most important livestock, while in Sahara and Asiatic deserts, sheep, goats and camel are reared. In the mountainous areas of Tibet and Andes, yak and llamas and in the Arctic and sub Arctic areas, reindeer are the most important animals.

Question 3.
Which regions are associated with pastoral nomadism?
Answer:
Pastoral nomadism is associated with three important regions. The core region extends from the Atlantic shores of North Africa eastwards across the Arabian peninsula into Mongolia and Central China. The second region extends over the tundra region of Eurasia. In the southern hemisphere there are small areas in South-west Africa and on the island of Madagascar.

Question 4.
What is transhumance?
Answer:
Pastoral nomadism is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically from one elevation to another in the mountainous regions. The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance. In mountain regions, such as Himalayas, Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas migrate from plains to the mountains in summers and to the plains from the high altitude pastures in winters. Similarly, in the tundra regions, the nomadic herders move from south to north in summers and from north to south in winters.

Question 5.
What is intensive subsistence agriculture? What are its types?
Answer:
Intensive subsistence agriculture is practiced in the poorer regions of the world, where farmers grow crops for family consumption. Very little is left as surplus for market. There are two types of

• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation: – It is characterized by dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings are veiy small due to the high density of population. Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low.
• Intensive subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy: Due to the difference in relief, climate, soil and some of the other geographical factors, it is not practical to grow paddy in many parts of monsoon Asia. Wheat, soyabean, barley and sorghum are grown in northern China, Manchuria, NorthKorea and North Japan. In India wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo- Gangetic plains and millets are grown in diy parts of western and southern India. Most of the characteristics of this type of agriculture are similar to those dominated by wet paddy except that irrigation is often used.

Question 6.
Write a note on Mediterranean agriculture from the point of view of its importance, areas and crops grown.
Answer:

• Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized commercial agriculture.
• It is practised in the countries on either side of the Mediterranean sea in Europe and in north Africa from Tunisia to Atlantic coast, southern California, central Chile, south western parts of South Africa and south and south western parts of Australia.
• It is an important supplier of citrus fruits. »Viticulture or grape cultivation is a speciality of the Mediterranean region.
• Best quality wines in the world with distinctive flavors are produced from high quality grapes in various countries of this region. The inferior grapes are dried into raisins and currants.
• This region also produces olives and figs.
• The advantage of Mediterranean agriculture is that more valuable crops such as fruits and vegetables are grown in winters when there is great demand in European and North American markets.

Question 7.
List the different uses of minerals in ancient time.
Answer:
The discovery of minerals in the history of human development, is reflected in many stages in terms of copper age, bronze age and iron age. The use of minerals in ancient times was largely confined to the making of tools, utensils and weapons. The actual development of mining began with the industrial revolution and its importance is continuously increasing.

Question 8.
Describe the factors that affect mining activities.
Answer:
The profitability of mining operations depends on two main factors:

• Physical factors include the size, grade and the mode of occurrence of the deposits.
• Economic factors such as the demand for the mineral, technology available and used, capital to develop infrastructure and the labour and transport costs.

Question 9.
Write a short note on commercial livestock rearing.
Answer:
Commercial livestock rearing is organized and capital intensive. The ranches on which it is practised are permanent and cover large area, which are further divided into fenced parcels to regulate grazing. When one parcel is grazed, the animals are shifted to another parcel and the number of animals in a parcel are kept according to the carrying capacity of the parcel. Only one type of animal (like sheep, cattle, goat and horses) is reared. Their products like milk, wool and hide are processed and packed scientifically, and then exported to world markets. The main emphasis is here on breeding, health care, disease control and genetic improvement of the animal. This is totally market and profit oriented. The developed countries like New Zealand, Australia, USA practise commercial livestock rearing.

Question 10.
Describe four different groups/types of economic activities.
Answer:
Economic activities are broadly grouped as Primary activities, Secondary activities, Tertiary activities and Quaternary activities.

• Primary Activities: It refers to extraction/ utilisation of raw materials from the earth’s surface. These include hunting, gathering, pastoralism, fishing, forestry, mining and agriculture.
• Secondary Activities: It includes industries that transform raw materials into finished foods having higher value. For example, manufacturing cotton textiles from raw cotton, and iron and steel from iron ore.
• Tertiary Activities: It includes all kinds of services provided for the people such as education, health, trade and transport.
• Quaternary Activities: It represents special kind of services, which is related to highly intellectual activities. For example, research and development service, information generation, information processing and transmission.

Question 11.
In modem times some gathering is market-oriented and has become commercial. Explain.
OR
Narrate the changes in gathering as an activity in recent times.
Answer:
It is absolutely right to say that in modem times, some gathering is market- oriented and has become commercial. Gatherers collect valuable plants and after simple processing sell these in the market.
They use different parts of the plants. For example, they use:

• Bark of the tree for making quinine, tanin extract and cork.
• Leaves are used to produce beverages, drugs, cosmetics, fibres, thatch and fabrics.
• Nuts are used for food and oils.
• Tree trunk provides rubber, balata, gums and resins.

Question 12.
Write a short note on market gardening?
Answer:
In market gardening, high value crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers are cultivated solely for the urban areas. Under this the size of farms is small and they are located where there are good transportation links with the urban centres where high income consumers are located. It is both labour and capital intensive and lays emphasis on the use of irrigation, HYV seeds, fertilizers, insecticides, green houses and artificial heating in colder regions.
This type of agriculture is well developed in densely populated industrial districts of North West Europe, North Eastern United States of America and the Mediterranean regions.

The Netherlands specializes in flowers and horticulture crops especially tulips, which are exported all over Europe. Those regions where farmers specialize in vegetables only, it is called truck farming.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Kolkhoz? How did it begin? Explain its features.
Answer:
Kolkhoz is the name for collective farming in Soviet Union. It was introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union to improve upon the inefficiency of previous methods of agriculture and to boost agricultural production for self sufficiency.
Its features:

• This type of farming is based on social ownership of the means of production and collective labour.
• The farmers pool in all their resources like land, livestock and labour.
• Yearly targets are set by the government and the produce is also sold to the state at fixed prices.
• Members are paid according to the nature of the work allotted to them by the farm management.

Question 14.
Describe the main features of extensive commercial grain cultivation.
Answer:
Important features of Extensive Commercial Grain Agriculture are as follows:

• It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes.
• Wheat is the principal crop though other crops like com, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
• The size of the farm is very large; therefore all the operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised.
• Yield per hectare is low but yield per person is high because less people and more machines are used.
• It is best developed in Eurasian steppes, the Canadian and American Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs and the Canterbury plains of New Zealand.

Question 15.
Describe the main features of market gardening and horticulture.
OR
List six points to describe market gardening & horticulture.
Answer:
The main features of horticulture and market gardening are

• It specializes in the cultivation of high value crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers.
• Crops are cultivated exclusively for the urban markets.
• Farms are small and are located near urban market.
• It is both labour and capital intensive.
• It lays emphasis on the use of irrigation, HYV seeds, fertilizers, insecticides, greenhouses and artificial heating in colder regions.
• This type of agriculture is well developed in densely populated industrial areas of Europe, North East U.S.A. and the Mediterranean regions.

Question 16.
What do you mean by subsistence agriculture? Explain its two types.
Answer:
Subsistence agriculture is one in which the farming areas consume all of the products that are locally grown. It is of two types:

• Primitive Subsistence Agriculture: It is also called shifting cultivation. Under this vegetation is cleared by fire and land is used for cultivation. These ashes add to fertility of soil and hence, it is also called slash and burn agriculture.
• Intensive Subsistence Agriculture: Under this type of farming, land holdings are very small and farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land with limited used of machinery.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.” In which type of agriculture is this evident? Why? Where is this type of agriculture practised?
Answer:
This feature is characteristic of extensive commercial grain cultivation. Since it is extensive that is on a very large scale, so use of mechanical devices, irrigation, sprinklers, tractors, low flying aircrafts is common.

In the areas practising commercial grain cultivation, the areas of production are high, as the farming is intensive, but due to the low population and high degree of mechanization, the number of people employed in these farms is less. Due to high level of scientific and technological skills employed in the production activities, the total yield is high, which results in very high per person yield, but due to extensive nature of farming and low pressure per unit area of land, yield per acre is low.

These are found in the developed countries of the world like in the Eurasian Steppes, the Canadian and American Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs and the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand.

Question 2.
What is the status of mining in the developed and developing economies of the world?
Answer:
Mining is primarily extraction of minerals from surface or beneath the surface of the earth’s crust for further processing in industrial and other uses. It involves more of manual labour and is hazardous, so the developed economies are retreating from mining, processing and refining stages of production due to high labour costs, while the developing countries with large labour force and striving for higher standard of living are becoming more important. Several countries of Africa and few of south America and Asia have over fifty per cent of the earnings from minerals alone.

Question 3.
Dairy farming is a modern occupation. Explain.
Answer:
It is absolutely right to say that dairy farming is a modern occupation. It is a type of agriculture in which major emphasis is on breeding and rearing milch cattle. Its main features are given below which can prove that it is a modem occupation:

• It is highly capital intensive. Large investments are made on animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines.
• Special emphasis is laid on cattle-breeding, health care and veterinary services.
• It is also highly-labour intensive as it involves painstaking care in feeding and milching.
• There is no off-season during the year.
• It is practised mainly near urban and industrial market.
• Dairy farming development depends on transportation, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation processes.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the types of farming based on organization.
Answer:

Cooperative Farming	Collecting Farming
(i) group of farmers form a co-operative society by pooling in their resources voluntarily for more efficient and profitable farming.	(i) the basic principle behind this types of farming is based on social ownership of the means of production and collective labour.
(ii) dividual farms remain intact and farming is a matter of cooperative initiative.	(ii) The farmers used to pool in all their resources like land, livestock and labour.
(iii) Co-operative societies help farmers, to procure all important inputs of farming, sell the products at the most favourable terms and help in processing of quality products at cheaper rate	(iii) Yearly targets were set by the government and the produce was also sold to the state at fixed prices. Produce in excess of the fixed amount was distributed among the members or sold in the market.
(iv) It has been successful in many western European countries like Denmark, Netherlands, Belgium, Sweden, Italy etc.	(iv) This type of farming was introduced in former Soviet Union under the socialist regime which was adopted by the socialist countries. After its collapse, these have already been modified

Question 5.
Compare mixed farming and dairy farming.
Answer:

Mixed Farming	Dairy Farming
(i) Mixed farms are moderate in size and grow mainly wheat, barley, oat, rye, fodder. Crop rotation, inter cropping etc. are practised to maintain soil fertility.	(i) Dairy farming is most advanced  and efficient type of rearing milch animals.
(ii) It is highly capital intensive and high investment in farm machinery, building, fertilizer, manure and skill of the farmers.	(ii) It is labour intensive as it requires intensive care in feeding and milching. It is an activity requiring year round labour as there is no off season like in the cropping activities.
(iii) Animals like cattle, sheep, poultry provide main income along with crops	(iii) It is highly capital intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines are the areas of heaviest expenditures.
(iv) Equal emphasis on crop cultivation and animal husbandry.	(iv) Special emphasis is laid on cattle breeding, healthcare and veterinary services.
(v) Practised in highly developed parts of the world- North Western Europe, East and North America, parts of Eurasia and temperate latitudes of southern continents.	(v) Practised near urban and industrial centres for easy access to dairy market. The main regions of commercial dairy farming are North Western Europe (largest), Canada, South East Australia and New Zealand.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Identify the areas on the political map of the world where subsistence gathering are practised.
Answer:

Question 2.
Identify the areas on the political map of the world where nomadic herding are practised.
Answer:

Question 3.
Identify the areas on the political map of the world where commercial livestock rearing are practised.
Answer:

Question 4.
Identify the areas on the political map of the world where extensive commercial grain farming are practised.
Answer:

Question 5.
Identify the areas on the political map of the world where mixed farming are practised.
Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the areas on the political map of the world where mediterranean agriculture are practised.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why is the number of pastoral nomadism decreasing in the world? Explain the main reason for it. (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
The number of pastoral nomads has been decreasing. The reasons are:

• The areas operated by them is shrinking,
• Imposition of political boundaries by the countries.
• The government of different countries implemented new settlement plans for the nomads.

Question 2.
Which are the two types of intensive subsistence agriculture? (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
Two types of intensive subsistence agriculture are:

1. Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation
2. Intensive subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.

Question 3.
Name any two areas of high latitudes in the world, where gathering economic activity is practised. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:

1. Canada and
2. Northern Eurasia.

Question 4.
Name the type of agriculture in which the farming areas consume all, or nearly so, of the products locally grown. (A.1.2010)
Answer:
Subsistence Agriculture is one in which the farming areas consume all, or nearly so, of the products.

Question 5.
Name the two activities on which the earliest human beings depended for their subsistence. (CBSE 2009, 2011)
Answer:
Two activities on which the earliest human beings depended for their subsistence are hunting and gathering.

Question 6.
Why has gathering little chance of becoming important at the global level? Explain one reason. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Gathering: Products of gathering (an activity) cannot compete in the world market as synthetic products are of better quality and available in large quantities/ and are lower priced.

Question 11.
State the two groups of factors which affect the profitability of mining. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Profitability of mining depends on:

1. Physical factors
2. Economic factors

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain any three features of underground mining. (CBSE 2010)
OR
Explain any three features of underground mining method used in different countries of the world. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Main features of underground mining are:

1. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to reach the minerals.
2. Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through the passages.
3. It requires specially designed lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system for safety and efficient movement of people and material.

Question 2 .
What is the importance of ‘dairy farming? Why is it mainly practised near urban and industrial centres of the world? Explain any two reasons. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:.
Dairy farming is capital intensive. It is the most developed form of keeping milch animals. It provides milk, butter, cheese, etc. It is practised near the markets – urban areas and industrial centres because there is demand for fresh milk and dairy product. The development in refrigeration, pasteurization and other processes has helped in it’s development.

Question 3.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: (Foreign 2011)

(i) Identify the diagram and give proper title to it.
(ii) What type of mining activities are presented by A and B?
(iii) What is the main differences between the two methods of mining as shown in A and B?
Answer:

• It is showing about the ‘Methods of Mining’.
• ‘A’ presents ‘Open-cast or Strip Mining’ and ‘B’ presents ‘Shaft Mining’.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
State any six characteristics of pastoral nomadism in the world. (CBSE 2007)
Answer:
Characteristics of nomadic herding in the world are:

• Nomadic herding or pastoral nomadism is a primitive subsistence activity.
• In this activity the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
• The nomadic herders move from one place to another along with their livestock, depending on the amount and quality of pastures and water.
• Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territoiy as a matter of tradition.
• A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions. For example, in tropical Africa, cattle are the most important livestock, while in Sahara and Asiatic deserts, sheep, goats and camel are reared.
• In the mountainous areas the herders follow transhumance, z.e. seasonal migration of herders with their animals

Question 2.
What is the meaning of market gardening and horticulture? Describe any four characteristics of this type of agriculture of the world. (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
Market gardening and horticulture are those which specialize in the cultivation of high value crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers, solely for the urban markets.
Characteristics of this types of agriculture are:

• Farms are located where there are good transportation links with the urban centre where high income group of consumers is located.
• It is both labour and capital intensive,
• It lays emphasis on the use of irrigation, HYV seeds, fertilizers, insecticides, greenhouses and artificial heating in colder regions.
• This type of agriculture is well developed in densely populated industrial districts of North West Europe, north eastern United States of America and the Mediterranean regions.

Question 3.
What is subsistence agriculture? Mention any four characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Subsistence Agriculture is a farming in which its produce is mainly consumed in the farmer’s household.
Characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture are:

• Primitive subsistence agriculture or shifting cultivation is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa, south and Central America and south east Asia.
• The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil.
• The cultivated patches are veiy small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes.
• After sometime (3 to 5 years) the soil looses its fertility and the farmer shifts to another parts and clears other patch of the forest for cultivation.

Question 4.
Study the given map showing dairy farming regions carefully and answer the questions that follow: (CBSE 2013)

(i) Identify and name the areas marked as A and B, marked on the map.
(ii) Define ‘dairy farming’.
(iii) Explain any three characteristics of dairy farming.
Answer:

• A : Canada / North-Eastern Canada B: North-western Europe
• Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals,

Characteristics of daily farming are:

• It is highly capital intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add to the cost of dairy farming.
• Special emphasis is laid on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services, rigorous care in feeding and milching.
• There is no off season during the year as in the case of crop raising.

Question 5.
Explain any three characteristics of hunting and gathering. Give two reasons why gathering has little chance to become important at global level. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
The characteristics of hunting and gathering are:
Characteristics:

• It involves primitive societies, who extract both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for food, shelter and clothing.
• This type of activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very low level of technology,
• The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

Reasons:

• Its products cannot compete in the world market.
• Synthetic products often of better quality and at lower prices have replaced such many items.

Question 6.
Explain any five characteristics of dairy farming practised in the world. (CBSE 2013) Ans. Characteristics:

• It is highly capital intensive.
• Special emphasis is laid down on cattle breeding, healthcare and veterinary services.
• It is highly labour intensive farming.
• It involves regorous care in feeding and milching.
• It is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres.

Question 7.
Define the term ‘nomadic herding’. Explain (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Nomadic herding is a primitive subsistence activity, in which the herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.

Question 8.
Differentiate between Nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing, stating any five points of distinction. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:

• Nomadic herding is a primitive subsistance activity. Unlike Nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organized and capital intensive activity,
• The Nomades rely on animals for food, clothing shelter, tools and transport. Whereas, commercial livestock rearing is associated with Western culture.
• Nomadic herders move from one place to another alongwith their livestock. Whereas commercial livestock is practised on permanent ranches where cattle are reared permanently.
• In Nomadism a wide variety of animals are kept in different regions. On the other hand, commercial livestock rearing is a specialized activity in which only one type of animal is reared.
• Pastoral nomadism is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically in the mountain regions. Rearing of animals in ranching is organized on a scientific basis.
• The quality of livestock is very poor in nomadic herding and production is also very poor. Whereas, in commercial rearing the quality of cattle and productivity both are veiy high.

Question 9.
Describe the way of life of nomadic herders in the World. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Way of life of nomadic herders:-

• They depend on the primitive subsistence activity.
• Herders rely on animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport,
• They move from one place to another with their livestock.
• They follow well defined territory.
• A wide variety of animals is kept in different regions.
• Nomadism is associated with three different regions.
• In mountainous regions, they practice transhumance.
• Their numbers are decreasing due to change in life style.
  (Any five points to be described)

Question 10.
Classify intensive subsistence agriculture into two categories practised in the world. How are they different from each other? Explain. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Classification of intensive subsistence agriculture

• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.

Difference:

Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.	Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.
(i) Dominance of the rice crop	(i) Due to difference in relief, climate soil and other geographical factors it is not practical to grow paddy in many parts of monsoon Asia.
(ii) Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land.	(ii) Not used manual labour
(iii) The yield per unit area is high.	(iii) The yield per unit area is not high.
(iv)  Per labour productivity is low.	(iv) Per labour productivity is high.

Question 11.
“Gathering and hunting are the primitive economic activities meant for the subsistence of tribal societies, but in modern times gathering is market oriented and has become commercial.” Examine the statement. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Gathering activities: Gatherers collect valuable plants, leaves, bark and medicinal herbs for different uses and sell in market.
The barks are used for making quinine, tannin etc., in different ways; leaves for beverages,-drugs, cosmetics, fibers, thatch, fabrics.
Edible nuts and their oils are also collected. Tree trunks for latex, balata, gums and resins are used as raw materials in various industries. (To be assessed as a whole)

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Soils

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following is the most widespread and most productive category of soil?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Laterite Soil
(c) Black Soil
(d) Forest Soil.
Answer:
(a) Alluvial soil

Question 1(ii).
‘Regur Soil’ is another name for the.
(a) Saline Soil
(b) Arid Soil
(c) Black Soil
(d) Laterite Soil.
Answer:
(c) Black Soil

Question 1(iii).
Which one of the following is the main reason for the loss of the top soil in India?
(a) Wind erosion
(b) Water erosion
(c) Excessive leaching
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Wind Erosion

Question 1(iv).
Arable land in the irrigated zones of India is turning saline due to which of the following reasons?
(a) Addition of gypsum
(b) Over grazing
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Use of fertilisers.
Answer:
(c) Over Irrigation.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What is soil?
Answer: Soil is the mixture of rock debris and organic materials which develop on the earth’s surface. The various agents of weathering and gradation have acted upon the parent rock material to produce a thin layer of soil. Important components of the soil are mineral particles, humus, water and air. The actual amount of each of these depend upon the type of soil.

Question 2(ii).
What are the main factors responsible for the formation of soil?
Answer:
Relief, parent material, climate, vegetation and other life-forms and time are the important factors that affect formation of soil. Besides these, human activities also influence it to a large extent. For example, the laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. Black soils are made from volcanoes. Forest soils are formed in the forest areas where sufficient rainfall is available. Peaty soils are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation.

Question 2(iii).
Mention the three horizons of a soil profile.
Answer:
Three horizons of soil profile are:

1. Horizon A: It is the topmost zone, where organic materials have got incorporated with the mineral matter, nutrients and water, which are necessary for the growth of plants.
2. Horizon B: It is a transition zone between the ‘horizon A’ and ‘horizon C’, and contains matter derived from below as well as from above. It has some organic matter in it, although the mineral matter is noticeably weathered.
3. Horizon C: It is composed of the loose parent material. This layer is the first stage in the soil formation process and eventually forms the above two layers.

Question 2(iv).
What is soil degradation?
Answer:
Soil degradation can be defined as the decline in soil fertility, when the nutritional status declines and depth of the soil goes down due to erosion and misuse. Soil degradation is the main factor leading to the depleting soil resource base in India.

The degree of soil degradation varies from place to place according to the topography, wind velocity and amount of the rainfall.

Question 2(v).
What is the difference between Khadar and Bhangar?
Answer:

Basis	Bhangar	Khadar
Composition	It is a highland composed of old alluvium.	It’s a lowland composed of new alluvium.
Flood	It is always above the level of flood plains.	It is flooded almost every year.
Fertility	It comprises of canvanious nodules.	It comprises of clay soil which is normally fertile.
Suitability	It is not much suited for agriculture.	It is suited for agriculture. Intensive agriculture is practiced here.
Other name	It is known as dhaya in Punjab.	It is known as bate in Punjab.

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words

Question 3(i).
What are black soils? Describe their formation and characteristics.
Answer:
Black soils are formed by volcanoes. These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’. Features: The black soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soil develop wide cracks.

Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self ploughing’. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially; the rain fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.

Chemical Composition: Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter. The colour of the soil ranges from deep black to grey.

Areas: Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu. In the upper reaches of the Godavari and the Krishna, and the north western part of the Deccan Plateau, the black soil is very deep.

Question 3(ii).
What is soil conservation? Suggest some measures to conserve soil.
Answer:
Soil conservation is a methodology to maintain soil fertility, prevent soil erosion and exhaustion, and improve the degraded condition of the soil.
We can use following measures to conserve soil:

• Check open cultivable lands on slopes from farming.
• Lands with a slope gradient of 15 – 25 per cent should not be used.
• If at all the land is to be used for agriculture, terraces should carefully be made.
• Contour bunding, Contour terracing, regulated forestry, controlled grazing, cover cropping, mixed farming and crop rotation to conserve soil.
• Integrated land use planning, therefore, seems to be the best technique for proper soil conservation.
• Lands should be classified according to their capability; land use maps should be prepared and lands should be put to right uses.

Question 3(iii).
How do you know that a particular type of soil is fertile or not? Differentiate between naturally determined fertility and culturally induced fertility.
Answer:
The fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile, whereas coarse-grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility. They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus.

Some soils have phosphorus, potassium, humus, nitrogen and calcium naturally. It increases the fertility of these soils. Such fertility is called naturally determined fertility. On the other hand, if soil is deficient in these substances, such substances are added in the form of fertilizers and manures. If fertility of soil is increased through human efforts, such fertility is called culturally induced fertility.

Naturally determined fertility makes human dependent on nature. Culturally induced fertility indicates that man has become master of the nature. It is an indicator of development of human race. Soils are living systems. Like any other organism, they too develop and decay, get degraded, respond to proper treatmentif administered in time. A human being may be intelligent by birth or may be made intelligent by efforts. Similarly, soil may be fertile naturally and may be made fertile by human efforts. Former is called naturally determined fertility and the latter is called culturally induced fertility.

Project/ Activity

Question 1.
Collect various samples of soil and prepare a report on the type (s) of soils found in your region.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

Question 2.
On an outline map of India, mark the areas covered by the following soil categories.
(i) Red soil
(ii) Laterite soil
(iii) Alluvial soil.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
A mixture of rock debris and organic materials which develop on the earth’s surface and nurture life is called:
(a) Bhangar
(b) Bhabar
(c) Khadar
(d) Soil.
Answer:
(d) Soil

Question 2.
Destruction of layer of soil is called:
(a) Soil Erosion
(b) Soil Conservation
(c) Soil Degradation
(d) Soil Formation,
Answer:
(a) Soil Erosion

Question 3.
Loss of fertility of soil is called:
(a) Soil Erosion
(b) Soil Conservation
(c) Soil Degradation
(d) Soil Formation.
Answer:
Soil Degradation

Question 4.
Which soil is formed by occurrence of volcanoes?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Black Soil
(c) Laterite Soil
(d) Peaty Soil.
Answer:
(b) Black Soil

Question 5.
Which soil is made up by the deposition of rivers?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Black Soil
(c) Laterite Soil
(d) Peaty Soil,
Answer:
(a) Alluvial Soil

Question 6.
A system of older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains which is loamy and clayey is called:
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Bhabar
(d) Degradation.
Answer:
b) Bhangar

Question 7.
Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means:
(a) Brick
(b) Infertile Land
(c) Gold Soil
(d) Eroded Soil.
Answer:
(a) Brick

Question 8.
What is the colour of arid soil?
(a) Brown
(b) Yellow
(c) Black
(d) Red and brown.
Answer:
(d) Red and Brown

Question 9.
Where are alluvial soils found in India?
(a) Northern plains and coastal areas
(b) Konkan Coast
(c) In Himalayan regions
(d) In North-east India.
Answer:
(a) Northern plains and coastal areas.

Question 10.
These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess.
Which soils are these?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Black Soil
(c) Laterite Soil
(d) Peaty Soil.
Answer:
(c) Laterite Soil

Question 11.
Which soils are also called Usara soils?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Black Soil
(c) Laterite Soil
(d) Peaty Soil.
Answer:
(d) Peaty Soil

Question 12.
What percent of India is covered with alluvial soils?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%.
Answer:
(c) 40%

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a feature of black soil?
(a) It is suitable for the cultivation of cotton.
(b) It has more capacity of absorbing moisture.
(c) It becomes loamy and sticky when wet.
(d) It has high iron content.
Answer:
(d) It has high iron content

Question 14.
Finger gullies can be eliminated by:
(a) Terracing
(b) Contour bunding
(c) Regulated forestry
(d) Controlled grazing.
Answer:
(a) Terracing

Question 15.
The country is losing about how much hectares of land to ravines every year?
(a) 6000 hectares
(b) 7000 hectares
(c) 8000 hectares
(d) 9000 hectares.
Answer:
(e) 8000 hectares

Question 16.
What is the full form of CAZRI?
(a) Central Arid Zone Research Institute
(b) Central Arid Zone Reproduction Implementation
(c) Central Agriculture Zone Research Institute
(d) Central Alluvial Zone Research Institute.
Answer:
(a) Central Arid Zone Research Institute.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention physical features of soil.
Answer:
In physical features of soil, important are colour, texture, composition, capacity to absorb moisture, erosion, depth, structure, slope of land and density.

Question 2.
What is a ravine?
Answer:
Gullies deepen with rainfall, cut the agricultural lands into small fragments and make them unfit for cultivation. These are called ravines.

Question 3.
On which physical factors does fertility of soil depend?
Answer:
Many physical factors affect fertility of soil. Size of particles, nature and composition, result of its holes, form and depth of soil, flow and storage of water depends on nature of soil. Composition of soil determine its ability to nurture the plants.

Question 4.
How is climate helpful in soil formation?
Answer:
Climate especially rainfall plays an important role in soil formation. It determines the nature of weathering, amount of water absorption, particles of humus and types of micro organism.

Question 5.
How does topography affect the process of soil formation?
Answer:
Slope determines the flow of water and soil erosion. Therefore, places of gentle slope have better soil development. Even fertility of soil depends on slope. It is so because steepness of slope reduces the rate of soil erosion.

Question 6.
In how many groups has Indian Agriculture Research Institute divided soils? Also name them.
Answer:
On the basis of genesis, colour, composition and location, the soils of India have been classified into eight groups by Indian Agriculture Research Institute. These are:

• Alluvial soils
• Black soils
• Red and Yellow soils
• Laterite soils
• Arid soils
• Saline soils
• Peaty soils
• Forest soils.

Question 7.
What factors are responsible for soil erosion and degradation?
Answer:
Running water, wind, snow, animals and human activities are responsible for soil erosion and degradation.

Question 8.
What are bad effects of soil erosion?
Answer:
There are many bad effects of soil erosion. Some of these are: removal of fertile soil; sudden outflow of destructive floods, cut the agricultural lands into small fragments and make them unfit for cultivation, reduction in moisture of soil etc.

Question 9.
Why is saline soil infertile?
Answer:
Saline soils are infertile because:

• They contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium, and
• They have more salts, largely because of dry climate and poor drainage.

Question 10.
Why is the colour of red and yellow soil red and yellow?
Answer:
The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.

Question 11.
On what basis has Indian Agriculture Research Institute divided soils?
Answer:
Indian Agriculture Research Institute has classified Indian soils on the basis of genesis, colour, composition and location,

Question 12.
How is soil useful for us?
Answer:
Soils nurture plants and animals. It is an important resource without which we cannot get our food.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the features of alluvial soils.
Answer:
Alluvial Soil:

• It is the most important type of soil found in India covering about 40 per cent of the total land area. It is very fertile and contributes to the largest share of agricultural wealth. This soil supports nearly half of the Indian population.
• The alluvial soils contain adequate potash, phosphoric acid and lime. Therefore, it is very fertile.
• They are generally deficient in organic and nitrogenous contents.
• The fine particles of sand, silt and clay are called alluvium. The alluvial soil can be divided into old alluvium, also called bhangar, and new alluvium, called khadar. Remember, the new alluvium can be about ten thousand years old.
• The old alluvium often contains lime nodules, known as kankar.
• The fertility of the alluvial soil varies from place to place. Due to its softness and fertility, alluvial soil is most suited to irrigation and can produce bumper crops of rice, wheat, maize, sugarcane, tobacco, cotton, jute, oilseeds, etc.

Question 2.
Explain about the features of red and yellow soil.
Answer:
The red and yellow soil occupies about 10 per cent area of India, mostly in the south-eastern part of the Peninsular India. This area encircles the entire black soil region. The red and yellow soil is found in Tamil Nadu, parts of Karnataka, south-east Maharashtra, eastern parts of Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa and Jharkhand.

• Most of the red and yellow soil has been formed due to weathering of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• The red colour is due to the high percentage of iron contents.
• The texture of the red and yellow soil varies from sandy to clayey, and the majority being loamy.
• On the uplands, the red and yellow soil is thin, poor, and porous and has loose gravel.
• In the lower areas, the soil is deep, rich, fine grained and fertile.
• This soil is rich in potash, but poor in lime, phosphate, nitrogen and humus. With proper doses of fertilizers and irrigation the red and yellow soils can give excellent yields of cotton, wheat, rice, pulses, millets, tobacco, oilseeds, etc.

Question 3.
Explain about the features of peaty and humus soil.
Answer:
Features:

• They are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation.
• Large quantity of dead organic matter
  accumulates in these areas, and this gives a rich humus and organic content to the soil.
• Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40-50 per cent.
• These soils are normally heavy and black in colour.
• At many places, they are alkaline also.
• It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, southern part of Uttaranchal and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Orissa and Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
How has Indian Council Agricultural Research Institute classified soils?
Answer:
ICAR has classified the soils of India into the following order as per the USD A soil taxonomy

SI.No.	Order	Percentage
(i)	Inceptisols	39.74
(ii)	Entisols	28.08
(iii)	Alfisols	13.55
(iv)	Vertisols	8.52
(v)	Aridisols	4.28
(vi)	Ultisols	2.51
(vii)	Mollisols	0.40
(v)	Others	2.92
	Total	100.00

Question 5.
Explain about saline soils.
Answer:
Saline soils contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium. Therefore, they are infertile, and do not support any vegetative growth. They are also known as Usara soils. They have more salts, largely because of dry climate and poor drainage. They occur in arid and semi-arid regions, and in waterlogged and swampy areas. They lack in nitrogen and calcium. Saline soils are more widespread in western Gujarat, deltas of the eastern coast and in Sunderban areas of West Bengal. In the Rann of Kuchchh, the South-west monsoon brings salt particles and deposits there as a crust. Seawater intrusions in the deltas promote the occurrence of saline soils.

Question 6.
Differentiate between:

1. Light soil and heavy soil
2. Gentle slope and steep slope
3. Soil erosion and soil degradation

Answer:
1.

Basis	Light Soil	Heavy Soil
Meaning	Light soils contain a very high proportion of sand, which contains few plant nutrients. They easily dry out, when the surface layer is easily blown away.	Heavy soils are those with a large component of clay in them, because the clay particles bind together to form a heavy, sticky lump which is difficult to dig.
Water Content	Because it is composed of so many fine particles which stick together easily, it is liable to compaction. It holds a lot of water and easily becomes waterlogged, so it is cold and wet in spring, and takes a long time to warm up.	Light soils drain quickly and do not hold water. They are often acidic. Since these soils do not hold water, they are warm and dusty.
Improvement	Heavy clay soils can be improved by adding humus or other organic matter and sharp sand for better drainage.	Light soils can be improved by adding plenty of organic matter in the form of garden compost or farmyard manure to give body and encourage moisture retention.

2.

Basis	Gentle Slope	Steep Slope
Meaning	Slope of 5% of the land is called gentle slope.	Slope of 10% of the land is called steep slope.
Waterlogging	Steep slopes in the headwaters of drainage basins tend to generate more runoff than do lowland areas. Mountain areas tend to receive more precipitation overall because they force air to be lifted and cooled.	On gentle slopes, water may temporarily pond and later soak in.
Speed of water movement	On gentle slopes water tends to move slowly. Soils tend to be thicker, more infilteration can occur.	On steep mountainsides, water tends to move downward more rapidly. Soils tend to be thinner on steep slopes, limiting storage of water, and where bedrock is exposed, little infiltration can occur.

3.

Basis	Soil Erosion	Soil Degradation
Meaning	Destruction of soil cover is called soil erosion.	Soil degradation is decline in soil fertility when the nutritional status declines and depth of the soil goes down.
Causes	It happens’due to action of running water, wind, deforestation etc.	It happens as a result of soil erosion and misuse of land.
Remedies	Forestation, check open cultivable lands on slopes from farming, preventing over grazing, etc.	Lesser use of chemical fertilizers, land use planning, terrace farming, etc.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain about the regions affected by soil erosion.
Answer:
West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Delhi, Rajasthan and in many parts of the country soil erosion has been a big problem. In mountain regions, there is erosion due to over grazing. In Meghalaya and Nilgiri hills due to potato cultivation and in Himalaya region due to deforestation, soil erosion is increasing.
Wind erosion is significant in arid and semi-arid regions.

In regions with heavy rainfall and steep slopes, erosion by running water is more significant. Water erosion which is more serious and occurs extensively in different’ parts of India, takes place mainly in the form of sheet and gully erosion. Gully erosion is common on steep slopes. Ravines are widespread, in the Chambal basin. Besides this, they are also found in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. The country is losing about 8,000 hectares of land to ravines every year.

Question 2.
Explain about causes responsible for soil erosion.
Answer:
Following causes are responsible for soil erosion:

1. Human Activities: Human activities too are responsible for soil erosion to a great extent. As the human population increases, the demand on the land also increases. Forest and other natural vegetation is removed for human settlement, for cultivation, for grazing animals and for various other needs. Wind and water are powerful agents of soil erosion because of their ability to remove soil and transport it.

2. Deforestation: Deforestation is one of the major causes of soil erosion. Plants keep soils bound in locks of roots, and thus, prevent erosion. They also add humus to the soil by shedding leaves and twigs. Forests have been denuded practically in most parts of India but their effect on soil erosion are more in hilly parts of the country.

3. Wind and water: Wind erosion is significant in arid and semi-arid regions.
In regions with heavy rainfall and steep slopes, erosion by running water is more significant. Water erosion which is more serious and occurs extensively in different parts of India, takes place mainly in the form of sheet and gully erosion. Sheet erosion takes place on level lands after a heavy shower and the soil removal is not easily noticeable.

Question 3.
In India, fertility of soil is also destroyed by over irrigation. Explain.
Answer:
A fairly large area of arable land in the irrigated zones of India is becoming saline because of over-irrigation.

• The salt lodged in the lower profiles of the soil comes up to the surface and destroys its fertility.
• Chemical fertilisers in the absence of organic manures are also harmful to the soil.
• Unless the soil gets enough humus, chemicals harden it and reduce its fertility in the long run. This problem is common in all the command areas of the river valley projects, which were the first beneficiaries of the Green Revolution.
• According to estimates, about half of the total land of India is under some degree of degradation.

Every year, India loses millions of tonnes of soil and its nutrients to the agents of its degradation, which adversely affects our national productivity. So, it is imperative to initiate immediate steps to reclaim and conserve soils.

Question 4.
Wind and water are two important agents of soil erosion. Explain.
Answer:
Wind and water are powerful agents of soil erosion because of their ability to remove soil and transport it. Wind erosion is significant in arid and semi-arid regions. Erosion by running water is more significant in regions with heavy rainfall and steep slopes. Water erosion which is more serious and occurs extensively in different parts of India, takes place mainly in the form of sheet and gully erosion. Sheet erosion takes place on level lands after a heavy shower and the soil removal is not easily noticeable.

But it is harmful since it removes the finer and more fertile top soil. Gully erosion is common on steep slopes. Gullies deepen with rainfall, cut the agricultural lands into small fragments and make them unfit for cultivation. A region with a large number of deep gullies or ravines is called bad land topography. Ravines are widespread, in the Chambal basin. They are also found in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. The country is losing about 8,000 hectares of land to ravines every year.

Question 5.
Explain about laterite soils.
Answer:
The word ‘laterite’ has been derived from a Latin word ‘later’ meaning ‘brick’. The laterite soil is widely spread in India and is mainly found on the summits of the Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Rajmahal Hills, Vindhyas, Satpuras and Malwa plateau. It’s well- developed in southern Maharashtra, and parts of Orissa, West Bengal, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Bihar, Assam and Meghalaya.

• The laterite soil is formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods.
• Such climatic conditions promote leaching of soil. Leaching is a process in which heavy rains wash away the fertile part of the soil.
• The laterite soil is red in colour and composed of little clay and much gravel of red sandstones.
• Laterite soil generally is poor in lime and deficient in nitrogen. The phosphate contents are generally high.

Due to intensive leaching, the laterite j soil generally lacks fertility and is of low value for crop production. But when manured and timely irrigated, the soil is suitable for producing plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber, coconut, areca nut, etc. It also provides valuable building materials.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 HOTS Questions

Question 1.
Explain different types of soil erosion.
Answer:
Surface erosion: When rain, wind or frost detaches soil particles from the surface, the particles are washed or blown off the paddock.

1. Sheet erosion: This occurs when rain falls on bare or sparsely covered soil, loosening fine particles (silt, clay and humus) that are carried downhill in surface run-off. Sheet erosion lowers the fertility of the soil, because it removes the most productive layer, which has usually been enriched by fertiliser.

2. Wind erosion: The wind can remove the valuable fine soil on the land surface. Seasonally strong winds hit many areas, such as sand dunes, the Central Volcanic Plateau, Wairarapa, Hawke’s Bay, Canterbury and Otago. If covering vegetation has been grazed or disturbed, wind erosion can be severe.

Fluvial erosion: This occurs when running water gouges shallow channels or deep gullies into the soil.

1. Rill erosion: On sloping land, particularly if cultivated, water run-off may gather in small V-shaped channels or rills. These are particularly evident in pumice soils or those formed from loess (wind-blown dust), but can occur on all hill soils.

2. Gully erosion: Gully erosion occurs on unconsolidated subsoils. These are generally deep and generate a lot of sediment, which often feeds into rivers. Gullies tend to erode at their head, eating back into the landscape. They are widespread throughout the country. In the 1950s, there was serious gully erosion in sandstone at Pohangina in the Manawatu. Severe gullying also developed in pumice soils on the Volcanic Plateau when pastures were first sown.

Question 2.
Name the soil which is:

1. Most fertile
2. Most infertile
3. Called regur soil
4. Used for making bricks

Answer:

1. Alluvial Soil
2. Saline Soil
3. Black Soil
4. Laterite Soil

Question 3.
Different regions exhibit different types of erosion. Substantiate.
Answer:
It is right to say that different regions exhibit different types of erosion.

• Wind erosion is significant in arid and semi-arid regions.
• In regions with heavy rainfall and steep slopes, erosion by running water is more significant.
• Water erosion which is more serious and occurs extensively in different parts of India, takes place mainly in the form of sheet and gully erosion.
• Sheet erosion takes place on level lands after a heavy shower and the soil removal is not easily noticeable.
• Ravines are widespread, in the Chambal basin. Besides this, they are also found in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. The country is losing about 8,000 hectares of land to ravines every year. .

Question 4.
How were soils classified in ancient times?
Answer:
In ancient times, soils used to be classified into two main groups –

1. Urvara and
2. Usara

Urvara was fertile land and Usara was sterile land.
In the 16th century A.D., soils were classified on the basis of their inherent characteristics and external features such as texture, colour, slope of land and moisture content in the soil. Based on texture, main soil types were identified as:

1. Sandy
2. Clayey
3. Silty and loam, etc.

On the basis of colour, they were red, yellow, black, etc.

Question 5.
What is soil made of?
Answer:
Initially, all over the planet, small pieces of rock broke off mountains and fell, breaking into smaller pieces as they went, so that at the bottom of mountains, heaps of rocks, stones and dust formed. Plants were able to take root in this, and when these plants died and decayed they added to the pockets of soil. Eventually, much of the planet was covered with soil, its exact composition determined partly by the type of rock in the area and by the local weather conditions.

So, all soil is composed of small pieces of the local rock and decayed vegetable or animal matter. The rock particles are classified on the basis of their size:
1. Clay is the smallest particles of broken rock in soil, less than .0002mm in diameter, so it is a fine dust. When wet, the individual particles stick together to form a solid mass. When they dry, they can bake to a hard crust. Clay holds water which does not drain away.

2. Silt is slightly larger pieces of rock than clay. It is also soft and smooth, with individual pieces close together. It too holds a lot of water, but the slightly larger particles make it a little better at draining than clay. Silt is often found in river estauries because the fine particles are washed downstream and deposited when the water flows more slowly.

3. Sand is small pieces of rock (2mm to .05mm diameter) such as quartz or sandstone. Sand particles are large enough to allow water to drain easily, but they do not hold water and are easily blown around when dry.

4. Stones, rocks and boulders are larger pieces of rock which are too big to form part of the soil but are found in many gardens. Under the surface layer of soil, they can help drainage.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Green revolution is bringing salinity in the soil. How?
Answer:
In the areas of intensive cultivation with excessive use of irrigation, especially in areas of green revolution, the fertile alluvial soils are becoming saline. Excessive irrigation with dry climatic conditions promotes capillary action, which results in the deposition of salt on the top layer of the soil. In such areas, especially in Punjab and Haryana, farmers are advised to add gypsum to solve the problem of salinity in the soil.

Question 2.
What kind of steps have been taken by Central Soil Conservation Board, set up by the Government of India?
Answer:
The Central Soil Conservation Board, set up by the Government of India, has prepared a number of plans for soil conservation in different parts of the country.

• These plans are based on the climatic conditions, configuration of land and the social behaviour of people. Even these plans are fragmental in nature.
• Integrated land use planning is the best technique for proper soil conservation.
• Lands should be classified according to their capability; land use maps should be prepared and lands should be put to right uses.
• The final responsibility for achieving the conservation of land will rest on the people who operate on it and receive the benefits. .

Map Skill

Question 1.
Locate one region where the following soil are found.

1. Arid Soil
2. Black Soil
3. Alluvial Soil
4. Red and Yellow Soil
5. Forest Soil.

Answer:

1. Rajasthan
2. Maharashtra
3. Northern Plains
4. Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
5. Himalayan regions in Jammu and Kashmir.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved.

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

Question 1(i).
Sandalwood is an example of:
(а) Evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Deltaic forest
(d) Thorny forest.
Answer:
(b)Deciduous forests

Question 1(ii).
Which one of the following was the purpose of Project Tiger?
(a) to kill tigers
(b) to put tigers in the Zoo
(c) to protect tigers from illegal hunting
(d) to make films on tigers.
Answer:
(c) To protect tigers from illegal hunting

Question 1(iii).
In which one of the following states is the Nandadevi Biosphere reserve situated?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Odisha.
Answer:
(c) Uttarakhand

Question 1(iv).
How many of the Biosphere reserves from India are recognised by the UNESCO?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four.
Answer:
(d) Four

Question 1(v).
Which one of the following proportion of area of the country was targeted to be under forest in Forest Policy of India? (a) 33
(b) 44
(c) 55
(d) 22.
Answer:
(a) 33.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What is natural vegetation? Under what climatic conditions do tropical evergreen forests develop?
Answer:
Natural vegetation refers to a plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust themselves to climate and soil conditions as fully as possible. India is a land of great variety of natural vegetation.

Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the north-eastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C.

Question 2(ii).
What do you understand by social forestry?
Answer:
Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.
The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories. These are:

1.  Urban forestry,
2. Rural forestry and
3. Farm forestry.

Question 2(iii).
Define Biosphere reserves?
Answer:
A Biosphere Reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which are internationally recognised within the framework of UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. The Biosphere Reserve aims at achieving the three objectives:

• Conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem;
• Association of environment with development;
• Providing international network in research and monitoring.

Question 2(iv).
What is the difference between forest area and forest cover?
Answer:
Difference between forest area and forest cover:

• Meaning: The forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of trees, while ie actual forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy.
• Estimation: The former is based on th| records of the State Revenue Department, while the latter is based on aerial photographs and satellite imageries.
• India facts: According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 per cent j of the total land area of the country. According to India State of Forest Report 2011, me actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 per cent. !

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words. j

Question 3(i).
What steps have been taken up to j conserve forests? j
Answer:
Following steps have been taken up to conserve forests:

1.Social forestry: Social forestry means the management and protection of forest and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural
development. The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories.

• Urban forestry: Urban forestry pertains to the raising and management of trees on public and privately owned lands in and around urban centres such as green belts, parks, roadside avenues, industrial and commercial green belts, etc.
• Rural forestry: Rural forestry lays emphasis on promotion of agro-forestry and community-forestry.
• Farm forestry: Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land inclusive of the waste patches. It combines forestry with agriculture, thus, altering the simultaneous production of food, fodder, fuel, timber and fruit.

2. Community forestry: Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land such as the village pasture and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips along railway lines, and schools, etc. Community forestry programme aims at providing benefits to the community as a whole.

3. Farm forestry: Farm forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow’ trees for commercial and non-commercial purposes on their farm, lands. Forest departments of various states distribute seedlings of trees free of cost to small and medium farmers.

Question 3(ii).
How can people’s participation be effective in conserving forests and wildlife?
Answer:
People’s participation can be very effective in conserving forests and wildlife. If is the common people who harm the wildlife and forests the most. They cut trees for shifting cultivation. They kill animals for entertainment. Therefore in 1972, government of India has passes Wildlife Protection Act whereby it is illegal to do hunting. Since then the hunting and poaching eases have reduced to a great extent.

The two main objectives of the Act are; to provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of the Act and to provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as National parks, sanctuaries and closed areas. This Act has been comprehensively amended in 1991, making punishments more stringent and has also made provisions for the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild animals. There are 105 National parks and 514 wildlife sanctuaries covering an area of 15.67 million hectares in the country.
These actions are taken by the government but their implementation and maintenance depend on the participation and cooperation of the people.

Project/Activity

On an outline map of India, mark and label the following:
(i) Areas having Mangrove forests.
(ii) Biosphere reserves of Nanda Devi, Sunderbans, Gulf of Mannar and Nilgiri.
(iii) Mark the location of Forest Survey of India Head Quarter.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Those forests which shed their leaves before summer season:
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
(a) Deciduous forests

Question 2.
Babool, her, and wild date palm, khair, neem are examples of:
(а) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
d) Thorny forests

Question 3.
Tidal and deltai forests are found in which region of India?
(a) Eastern Coast
(b) Western Coast
(c) Rann of Kachchh
(d) Bay of Mannar.
Answer:
(a) Eastern coast

Question 4.
Sunderbans or mangrove trees are found in:
(а) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
(c) Tidal forests

Question 5.
Which forests can develop in sweet as well as saline water?
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
(c) Tidal forests

Question 6.
Where is Sunderbans biosphere reserve located?
(a) In Ganga river delta
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(a) In Ganga river delta

Question 7.
What are important trees found in tropical evergreen forests?
(а) Babool, her, and wild date palm
(b) Teak, sal, shisham, hurra
(c) Rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony
(d) Peepal, jamun, mahua.
Answer:
(c) Rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony

Question 8.
Tropical evergreen forests are found in those areas where:
(а) 200 cm of rainfall takes place
(b) 100 cm of rainfall takes place
(c) 50 cm of rainfall takes place
(d) Less than 50 cm of rainfall takes place.
Answer:
(a) 200 cm of rainfall takes place

Question 9.
What is the basis of classifying important forms of natural vegetation?
(а) Climate
(b) Land
(c) Topography
(d) Atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
(a) Climate

Question 10.
Which one of the following was first biosphere of India?
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere
(b) Nanda Devi Biosphere
(c) Sunderbans Biosphere
(d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere.
Answer:
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere

Question 11.
The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories. Which of the following is not included in this?
(a) Urban forestry
(b) Rural forestry
(c) Farm forestry
(d) Agriculture forestry.
Answer:
(d) Agriculture forestry

Question 12.
Which of the following is not included in urban forestry?
(a) Green Belt
(b) Park
(c) Planting trees on roadsides
(d) Planting trees on barren and arable lands.
Answer:
(d) Planting trees on barren and arable lands

Question 13.
How many national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are there in India?
(a) There are 105 national parks and 514 wildlife sanctuaries.
(b) There are 112 national parks and 505 wildlife sanctuaries.
(c) There are 12 national parks and 51 wildlife sanctuaries.
(d) There are 78 national parks and 452 wildlife sanctuaries.
Answer:
(a) There are 105 National parks and 514 wildlife sanctuaries.

Question 14.
Which type of trees are found in 3000-4000 altitude on Himalayas?
(а) Bluepines Sproos
(b) Deodar
(c) Junior, Pine, Varch
(d) Oak, Chestnut.
Answer:
(c) Junior, Pine, Varch.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is natural vegetation?
Answer:
Natural vegetation refers to a plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust themselves to climate and soil conditions as fully as possible.

Question 2.
Where can you find natural vegetation?
Answer:
We can find natural vegetation in those areas where climate and soil are suitable for plant growth. Depending upon the variations in the climate and the soil, the vegetation of India changes from one region to another.

Question 3.
In how many categories have vegetation of Himalayas been classified?
Answer:
Vegetation of Himalayas has been classified into four groups. These are:

1. Deciduous forests
2. Wet temperate forests
3. Cold climate vegetation
4. Alpine vegetation.

Question 4.
When was National Forest Policy adopted in India?
Answer:
National Forest Policy was adopted in 1952 under which Forest Conservation Board was established. This policy was modified in 1988.

Question 5.
When was Project Tiger and Project Elephant launched?
Answer:
Project Tiger was launched in 1973 and Project Elephant was launched in 1992.

Question 6.
Name the states which have less than 10% of forest cover.
Answer:
States of India which have less than 10% forest cover: ‘

1. Haryana
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Punjab
4. Rajasthan
5. Bihar
6. Delhi
7. Gujarat
8. Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 7.
Name those states which have more than two-third of area covered with forests. Answer: States which have more than two third of area covered with forests:

1. Tripura
2. Nagaland
3. Mizoram
4. Meghalaya
5. Manipur
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 8.
Name important trees of tropical evergreen forests.
Answer:
Important trees of tropical evergreen forests include rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony, etc.

Question 9.
Name important trees of tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species of tropical deciduous forests.

Question 10.
Which state has highest and lowest percentage of forests?
Answer:
Mizoram has highest forests and Haryana has lowest forests.

Question 11.
Which union territory has highest and lowest percentage of forests?
Answer:
Lakshadweep islands and Andaman and Nicobar has largest number of trees with 85.91% and 84.01% respectively. Pondicherry and Chandigarh have lowest percentage of forest cover with 7.45% and 7.51% respectively.

Question 12.
On the basis of actual forest cover, in how many categories have Indian states been divided?
Answer:
On the basis of the percentage of the actual forest cover, the states have been grouped into four regions:

1. The region of high concentration > 40
2. The region of medium concentration 20-40
3. The region of low concentration 10-20
4. The region of very low concentration < 10.

Question 13.
What is a national park?
Answer:
A national park is an area which is strictly reserved for the protection of the wildlife and where activities such as forestry, grazing or cultivation are not allowed.

Question 14.
What is social forestry?
Answer: Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.

Question 15.
Why vegetation in thorn forest have sukleen stem and small leaves?
Answer:
Vegetation in thorn forest have sukleen stem and small leaves because this forest lies in the areas which receives rainfall less than 50 cm.

Question 16.
Name the first Biosphere reserve?
Answer:
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserves was the first of the fourteen biosphere reserve of India.

Question 17.
When was the new forest policy implemented?
Answer:
The new forest policy was adopted in 1952 and was further modified in 1988.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the three categories of social forestry?
Answer:
Social forestry is classified into three categories Urban forestry:
It pertains to the raising and management of trees on public and privately owned land such as green belts, parts, roadside avenues, industrial and commercial green belts etc.
Rural forestry:

• It is divided into agro-forestry and community.
• Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land inclusive of the waste patches.
• Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land such as the village pasture and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips, along railway lines and schools, etc. providing benefits to the community as a whole.

Farm forestry:

• It is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees for commercial and non-commercial purposes on their farm lands.
• Commercial purposes-Forestdepartment of various states distribute seedlings of trees free of cost to small and medium farmers. Several land such as the margins of agricultural fields grasslands and pastures, land around homes and cow sheds may be used for raising trees under non-commercial farm forestry.

Question 2.
The percent of forest cover varies state to state. Substantiate.
Answer:
According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 per cent of the total land area of the country. According to India State of Forest Report 2011, the actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 per cent. Both forest area and forest cover vary from state to state.

• Lakshadweep has zero per cent open forest area; Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93 per cent.
• Most of the states with less than 10 per cent of the forest area lie im th# nprth and north-western part of %• country. These are Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi.
• States with 10-20 p#r cent |jrea are Tamil Nadu and West ^Ungfl.
• In Peninsular India, exciting Trnnil Nadu, Dadra and Nagar Hav^i %jad ^pa, the area under forest cover is 20-30 per cent.
• The north-eastern states have :yppe than 30 per cent of the land u^#r fjrtst. Hilly topography and lg}*vy |re
  good for forest growth.
• There are 15 states where the forest cover is more than one-third of t]p t^al area, which is the basic requirement for maintaining the ecological balance.

Question 3.
What objectives have been determined for the conservation of forests according to national forest policy?
Answer:
Objectives of new forest policy art:

•  Bringing 33% of the geographical areas under forest cover.
• Maintaining environmental stability and to restore forests where ecological balance was disturbed.
• Conserving the natural heritage of the country.
• Its biological diversity and gentle pool.
• Checks soil erosion extension of the deserts land and reduction of floods and droughts.
• Increasing the forest cover through social forestry and afforestation on degraded lands.
• Increasing the productivity of forest to make timber, fuel, fodder and food available to rural population dependent on forests and encourage the substitution of wood.
• Creating massive people’s movement involving women to encourage planting of trees, stop felling of trees and thus, reduce pressure on the existing forest.

Question 4.
Write down the important features of thorn forest?
Answer:

• Tropical thorn forest occurs in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm and consist of variety of grasses and shrubs.
• It includes semi-arid areas of south-west Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• In these forests, plants remain leafless for most part of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation.
• Important species found are babool, khair, neem, kherjiri, palas, etc.
• Tussocky grass grows upto a height of 2m as the under growth and cactus is an important plant of these forests.
• Its main features are that they have sukleen stems which help in retaining moisture.
• They have roots which go underground upto 1 km.
• Leaves are reduced into thorn, spines which reduce transpiration.

Question 5.
Explain about mountain forests.
Answer:
The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which change in with the altitude.
Mountain forests can be classified into two types, the northern mountain forests and the southern mountain forests. Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m. In the higher hill ranges of northeastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttaranchal, evergreen broad leaf trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant. Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial tree. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows mainly in the western part of the Himalayan range. Blue pine and spruce appear at altitudes of 2,225-3,048 m. At many places in this zone, temperate grasslands are also found. But in the higher reaches there is a transition to Alpine forests and pastures. Silver firs, junipers, pines, birch and rhododendrons, etc. occur between 3,000-4,000 m.

Question 6.
In how many groups has wetland been divided in our country?
Answer:
The country’s wetlands have been grouped into eight categories. These are:

• The reservoirs of the Deccan Plateau in the south together with the lagoons and other wetlands of the southern west coast;
• The vast saline expanses of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the Gulf of Kachchh;
• Freshwater lakes and reservoirs from Gujarat eastwards through Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh;
• The delta wetlands and lagoons of India’s east coast;
• The freshwater marshes of the Gangetic Plain;
• The floodplains of the Brahmaputra; the marshes and swamps in the hills of northeast India and the Himalayan foothills;
• The lakes and rivers of the montane region of Kashmir and Ladakh; and
• The mangrove forest and other wetlands of the island arcs of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 7.
Differentiate between:

1. Natural Vegetation and Forests
2. Dry deciduous and Moist deciduous Forest
3. Forest cover and Forest area
4. National Park and Sanctuary
5. National Park and Biosphere Reserve.

Answer:
1.

Basis	Natural Vegetation	Forests
Meaning	Natural vegetation refers to a plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust themselves to climate and soil conditions as fully as possible.	Group and community of plants and trees which are found in a particular climatic conditions are called forests.
Collection	These may not be similar.	These are generally similar.
Scope	These include forests.	Forests are a type of natural vegetation.

2.

Basis	Dry Deciduous Forest	Moist Deciduous Forest
Rainfall	It’s rainfall ranges between 70-100 cm.	It’s rainfall ranges between 100­200 cm.
Areas	These forests are found in the rain areas of the peninsular and the plains of the Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.	These forests are found in the northern-eastern states along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes of the western Ghats and Orissa.
Species	Mainspecies:Tendu,palas,khair,axlewood,etc.	Main species: Teak, sal, shisham, kusum and sandalwood, etc.

3.

Basis	Forest Cover	Forest Area
Meaning	The forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy.	The forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of land.
Findings	It is based on aerial photographs and satellite imageries.	It is based on the records of the state revenue department.
Coverage	The actual forest cover was only 20.55 %	The forest cover area is 23.28 % of the total area of the country.
Example	Actual forest cover ranges from 9.56 % and in Jammu and Kashmir to 84.01 % in Andaman and Nicobar Island.	Lakshadweep has zero percent forest area Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93% etc.

4.

Meaning	A national park is an area which is strictly reserved for the protection of the wildlife and where activities such as forestry, grazing or cultivation are not allowed.	A sanctuary is an area which is reserved for the conservation of animals only and operations such as harvesting of timber, collection of minor forest products are allowed so long as they do not affect the animals adversely.
Number	There are 105 national parks in India.	There are 514 wildlife sanctuaries in India.
Example	Actual forest cover ranges from 9.56% and in Jammu and Kashmir to 84.01% in Andaman and Nicobar Island.	Lakshadweep has zero percent forest area; Andaman and Nicobar Island have 86.93% etc.

5.

Basis	National Park	Biosphere Reserve
Meaning	A national park is an area which is strictly reserved for the protection of the wildlife and where activities such as forestry, grazing or cultivation are not allowed.	A biosphere reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which are internationally recognised within the framework of UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAE) Programme.
Number	There are 105 national parks in India.	There are 18 biosphere reserves in India.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Natural vegetation is an outcome of climate.” Substantiate the statement by taking example of Indian vegetation.
Answer:
India is a land of great variety of natural vegetation. Himalayan heights are marked with temperate vegetation; the Western Ghats and the Andaman Nicobar Islands have tropical rain forests.

• Tropical evergreen forests are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C. In these forests, trees reach at great heights up to 60 m or above. The semi¬evergreen forests are found in the less rainy parts of these regions.
• Tropical deciduous forests are spread over regions which receive rainfall between 70-200 cm.
• The moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70-100 cm.
• Tropical thorn forests occur in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm. In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to a corresponding change in natural vegetation.
• The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, with change in the altitude. Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m. In the higher hill ranges of north-eastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttarakhand, evergreen broad leaf trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant. Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial tree.

Question 2.
Mention the reasons for the decline of wildlife in India?
Answer:
Important reasons for the decline of Wildlife in India are-

• Industrial and technological advancement brought about a rapid increase in the exploitation of forest resources.
• More and more lands were closed for agriculture, human settlement, roads, mining, resources, etc.
• Pressure on forests maintained due to looping for fodder and fuel, wood and removal of small timber by the local people.
• Grazing by domestic cattle caused an adverse effect on wildlife and its habitat.
• Hunting was taken up as a sport by the elite and hundreds of wild animals were killed in a single hunt. Now commercial poaching is rampant.
• Incidence of forest fire.

Question 3.
According to the statistics received from state records, there are differences in forest area and actual forest cover. Explain.
Answer:
According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 percent of the total land area of the country. It is important to note that the forest area and the actual forest cover are not the same. The forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of trees, while the actual forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy.
Forest area is based on the records of the State Revenue Department, while the actual forest cover is based on aerial photographs and satellite imageries.

According to India State of Forest Report 2011, the actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 percent. Of the forest cover, the share of dense and open forests is 12.29 and 8.75 percent respectively. Both forest area and forest cover vary from state to state. Lakshadweep has zero percent forest area; Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93 percent. Most of the states with less than 10 percent of the forest area lie in the north and northwestern part of the country. These are Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Delhi.

States with 10-20 percent forest area are Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. In Peninsular India, excluding Tamil Nadu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Goa, the area under forest cover is 20-30 percent. The northeastern states have more than 30 percent of the land under forest. Hilly topography and heavy rainfall are good for forest growth. There is a lot of variation in actual forest cover, which ranges from 9.56 percent in Jammu and Kashmir to 84.01 percent in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 4.
On the basis of actual forest cover, in how many categories have Indian states been divided?
Answer:
On the basis of the percentage of the actual forest cover, the states have been grouped into four regions:

• The region of high concentration > 40: It includes Andaman and Nicobar islands, Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh which have 80% of their total area under forests. Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya, Sikkim and Dadar and Haveli have forest cover between 40-80%.
• The region of medium concentration 20-40: It includes Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Goa, Kerala, Assam and Himachal Pradesh. In Goa, actual forest cover is 33.27% which is highest in this range. Thereafter, comes Assam and Orissa. In other states 30% of their area is covered with forests.
• The region of low concentration 10-20: It includes states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
• The region of very low concentration < 10: It includes states of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, and Gujarat. It also includes union territories of Delhi and Chandigarh. It also includes West Bengal.

Question 5.
Explain in short about four important Biospheres of India.
Answer:
Four Biosphere Reserves have been recognised by the UNESCO on World Network of Biosphere Reserves. These are as follows:

1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve: The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR) is the first of the fourteen biosphere reserves of
India. It was established in September 1986. It embraces the sanctuary complex of Wyanad, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Mudumalai, the entire forested hill slopes of Nilambur, the Upper Nilgiri plateau, Silent Valley and the Siruvani hills. The total area of the biosphere reserve is around 5,520 sq. km. The largest south Indian population of elephant, tiger, gaur, sambar and chital as well as a good number of endemic and endangered plants are also found in this reserve. The topography of the NBR is extremely varied, ranging from an altitude of250 m to 2,650 m. About 80 percent of the flowering plants reported from the Western Ghats occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve: The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is situated in Uttarakhand. It includes parts of Chamoli, Almora, Pithoragarh and Ba’geshwar districts. The major forest types of the reserve are temperate. A few important species are silver weed and orchids like latifolie and rhododendron. The biosphere reserve has a rich fauna like the snow leopard, black bear, brown bear, musk deer, snow- cock, golden eagle and black eagle.

3. Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve: It is located in the swampy delta of the river Ganga in West Bengal. It extends over a vast area of 9,630 sq. km and consists of mangrove forests, swamps and forested islands. Sunderbans is the home of nearly 200 Royal Bengal tigers. More than 170 birds species are known to inhabit these mangrove forests. In the Sunderbans, the mangrove forests are characterised by Heritiera fomes, a species valued for its timber.

4. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve: The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve covers an area of 105,000 hectares on the south-east coast of India. It is one of the world’s richest regions from a marine biodiversity perspective. The biosphere reserve comprises 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Hots Questions

Question 1.
“Forest and tribal are very closely related”. Justify the statement.
Answer:

• To a vast number of tribal people, the forest, is a home, a livelihood, their very existence.
• It provides them food, fruits of all kinds, edible leaves, honey nourishing roots and wild game.
• It provides them with material to build their houses and items for practising their arts.
• The importance of forests in tribal economy is well-known as they are the source of sustenance and livelihood for tribal communities.
• The age old knowledge of tribals regarding forestry can be used in the development of forests.
• Rather than treating tribals as minor forest produce collectors they should be made growers of minor forest produce and encouraged to participate in conservation.

Question 2.
When was comprehensive Wildlife Act enacted and what are its objectives?
Answer:
In 1972, comprehensive Wildlife Act was enacted.

• To provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of the act.
• To provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as national parks, sanctuaries and closed areas.
• Making punishments more stringent and has also made provisions for the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild animals.

Question 3.
Write the objectives of Project Tiger and Project Elephant and in how many states they are implemented.
Answer:
The objectives of Project Tiger and Project Elephant are:

• Maintenance of viable population of tigers in India for scientific, aesthetic, cultural and ecological values.
• To preserve areas of biological importance as natural heritage for the benefit, education and enjoyment of the people.

The Project Tiger was launched in 1973 under which 27 tiger reserves have been set up in 17 states.
Project Elephant was launched in 1992. 14 elephant reserves have been set up during the year. Its main objective to ensure long-term survival of identified viable population of elephants in their natural habitat.

Question 4.
What is Biosphere Reserve and what are its objectives?
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which are internationally recognized within the framework of UNESCO Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme.
The main objectives of biosphere reserve are:

• Conservation: Conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem.
• Development: Association of environment with development.
• Logistics: International network for research and monitoring.

Question 5.
Mangrove forests are unique in their own way. Explain.
Answer:
Mangrove forest:

• The tidal forests are found in the areas of the coastal margins of Krishna, Kaveri, and Brahmaputra delta mainly occupying the estuaries, etc.
• They are found in the swamp and marshy areas.
• They can survive both in fresh and salty water.
• The trees have stilt like breathing or support rots, sticking out of mud and water.
• They are exposed at low tides and get submerged at high tides.
• Hot and wet climate favours their dense growth.
• Sunderi is the well known Mangrove trees. The famous Sunderban deltas are named after these trees.

MAP SKILL

Question 1.
On an outline map of India, mark and label the following:

1. Nanda devi
2. Panchmarhi
3. Manas
4. Nilgiri
5. Similipal
6. Bay of Mannar
7. Great Nicobar
8. Nokrak
9. Sunderbans
10. Achanakmar – Amarkantak.

Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Human Development

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following best describes development?
(a) an increase in size
(b) a constant in size
(c) a positive change in quality
(d) a simple change in the quality
Answer:
(c) a positive change in quality

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following scholars introduced the concept of Human Development?
(a) Prof. Amartya Sen
(b) Ellen C Semple
(c) Dr. Mahabub-ul-Haq
(d) Ratzel
Answer:
(c) Dr. Mahabub-ul-Haq

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
What are the three basic areas of Human development?
Answer:

• Access to resources: It is taken as an indicator of economic condition and ability of individuals to purchase goods of their demands. The indicator used to determine this is per capital income, which shows purchasing power of individuals in terms of dollars.
• Health: Longevity of people of the country indicates the availability of health care services and facilities in the country. Country with higher life expectancy tends to have higher HDI.
• Education: The adult literacy rate and gross enrollment ratio represents access to knowledge.

Question 2.(ii)
Name the four main components of human development.
Answer:
The four main pillars of human development are the concepts of equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.

Question 2.(iii)
How are countries classified on the basis of human development index?
Answer:
Countries can be classified into four categories on the basis of human development index as:

HDI	Number of countries	Score in Development
		Index
Very High Human Development	49	> 0.808
High Human Development	53	0.700 up to 0.807
Medium human development	42	0.556 up to 0.699
Low human development	43	< 0.555

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
What do you understand by the term Human development?
Answer:
Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq introduced the concept of human development. He described human development as a development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development under this concept. These choices are not fixed but keep on changing. The basic goal of human development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.

A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. This means that people must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals by full access to resources, education and health facilities. There should be no hindrance to a person’s progress due to deprivation of life chances. Leading a long and healthy life, being able to gain knowledge and having enough means to be able to live a decent life are the most important aspects of human development. Building people’s capabilities in areas of health, education and access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited.

Question 3.(ii)
What do equity and sustainability refer to within the concept of human development?
Answer:
Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste. It aims at providing equal opportunities to all with no special privileges or restriction to any person or group of persons. It is essential for human development to ensure access to resources in order to fulfill choices and lead a meaningful life.

For example, in any country, it is interesting to see which group the most of the school dropouts belong to. This should then lead to an understanding of the reasons for such behavior. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge. Sustainability can be defined as “using resources in a way that fulfill the needs of present generation without compromising on their availability for future generations.” Sustainability refers to continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

Example; If the key resource of coal is being overused by the present generation, it will lead to its paucity in future. When adequate coal will not be available to future generation, the power generation capability wifi be hindered which in turn will affect several infrastructural, industrial and other activities, which in turn will negatively affect the available choices and quality of life of future generations.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who introduced the concept of Human development?
Answer:
Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq introduced the concept of Human development.

Question 2.
Define human development.
Answer:
Human development is the development that enlarges people’s choice and improves their lives so that they can lead a healthy, meaningful, purposeful life with dignity.

Question 3.
Which agency brings out the Human Development report?
Answer:
United Nations Development Programme publishes human development report annually since 1990.

Question 4.
What are the approaches to human development?
Answer:
Income approach, welfare approach, basic needs approach and capability approach are the approaches to human development.

Question 5.
What does human poverty index measures?
Answer:
Human poverty index measures the shortfall in human development. It is a non-income measure.

Question 6.
What are the two important indices used by UNDP to measure human development?
Answer:
The human development index and human poverty index are the two important indices used by the UNDP to measure human development.

Question 7.
Which country is ranked no. 1 in HDI?
Answer:
Norway is ranked no. 1 in HDI.

Question 8.
Which countries fall in the score of 0.700 to 0.807?
Answer:
The high development countries fall in the above criteria.

Question 9.
What do you mean by growth?
Answer:
Growth is quantitative and value neutral. It may be positive or negative. It shows change with reference to time.

Question 10.
What are the criteria to measure level of human development?
Answer:
The criteria to measure level of human development claims that people must be healthy and educated, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals.

Question 11.
What is meant by sustainability?
Answer:
Sustainability refers to continuity in the availability of opportunities. In other words, all generations must have the same opportunities and for this all environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future.

Question 12.
What is meant by empowerment?
Answer:
It refers to having power to make better decisions and choices in life. This power comes from freedom and capability. Good governance and people oriented policies are required for empowerment of people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged people is of special importance.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Human Development Index?
Answer:
Human Development Index measures attainments in human development. It reflects what has been attained in key areas of human development like education, health and standard of living. Its value lies between 0 and 1, 0 shows the lowest level of human.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Human Poverty Index?
Answer:
Human Poverty Index complements Human Development Index and measures the shortfall in human development. It is a non-income measure.

Question 15.
How is Bhutan different and special?
Answer:
Bhutan is different and special because it is the only country in the world which has officially proclaimed the Gross National Happiness (GNH) as the measure of the country’s progress. It is not willing to bring material growth and technological progress at the cost of happiness of the people.

Question 16.
Differentiate between growth and development.
Answer:
The difference between growth and development: Growth is quantitative, whereas development is qualitative. Growth is value neutral, whereas development is value positive.Growth may be positive or negative, whereas development will always
be positive.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does the Human Development Index ranks the countries?
Answer:
The Human Development Index ranks the countries based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and access to resources. These ranking are based on a score between 0 to 1, that a country earns from it record in the key areas of human development. Each of these dimensions is given a weightage of 1 / 3. The HDI is the sum total of the weights assigned to all these dimensions. The closer a score is to 1, the greater is the level of human development.

Question 2.
What are the aspects of human development?
Answer:
Leading a long and healthy life, being able to gain knowledge and having enough means to be able to live a decent life are the most important aspects of human development. Therefore, access to resources, health and education are the key areas in human development.

Question 3.
Why are some people incapable of making the basic choices?
Answer:
Very often, people do not have the capability and freedom to make even basic choices. This may be due to their inability to acquire knowledge, their material poverty, social discrimination, inefficiency of institutions and other reasons. This prevents them from leading healthy lives being able to get educated or to have the means to live a decent life. Building people’s capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited. For example, an uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a doctor because her choice has got limited by her lack of education. Similarly, very often poor people cannot choose to take medical treatment for disease because their choice is limited by their lack of resources.

Question 4.
With examples show how the government expenditure on social sector is an indicator of human development in different area?
Answer:
The pattern of government expenditure on social sector is an important indicator of the level of human development in a particular region. The political environment of the country and the amount of freedom people have is also important. Countries with high levels of human development invest more in the social sectors and are generally free from political turmoil and instability. Distribution of the country’s resources is also far more equitable.

On the other hand, places with low levels of human development tend to spend more on defense rather than social sectors. This shows that these countries tend to be located in areas of political instability and have not been able to initiate accelerated economic development.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Compare the social-economic conditions of the people in the countries with different human development levels.
Answer:
High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others. Many of these countries have been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialized western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

Countries with medium levels of human development form the largest group. There are 42 countries in the medium level of human development. Most of these are countries which have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Some countries from this group were former colonies while many others have emerged after the break up of the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1990. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination. Most of these countries have a much higher social diversity than the countries with higher human development scores. Many in this group have faced political instability and social uprisings at some point of time in their recent history.

As many as 43 countries record low levels of human development. A large proportion of these are small countries which have been going through political turmoil and social instability in the form of civil war, famine or a high incidence of diseases. There is an urgent need to address the human development requirements of this group through well thought out policies.

Question 2.
Explain the four pillars of human development.
Answer:
The idea of human development is supported by the concepts of equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.
Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available to, people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste. Yet this is veiy often not the case and happens in almost every society. For example, in any country, it is interesting to see which group the most of the school dropouts belong to. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge.
Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

A good example is about the importance of sending girls to school. If a community does not stress the importance of sending its girl children to school, many opportunities will be lost to these young women when they grow up. Their career choices will be severely curtailed and this would affect other aspects of their lives. So each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future generations.
Productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, efforts to increase their knowledge, or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.

Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Question 3.
What are the different approaches/ ways of looking at the problem of human development?
Answer:
Some of the important approaches of looking at human development are:
(a) Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development.
(b) Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.
(c) Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.ehealth, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.
d) Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.

Question 4.
“The Human Poverty index is more revealing than the Human Development Index”. Explain with examples,
Answer:
The human development index measures attainments in human development. It reflects what has been achieved in the key areas of human development. Yet it is not the most , reliable measure. This is because it does not say anything about the distribution. The human poverty index is related to the human development index. This , index measures the shortfall in human development. It is a non-income measure. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40, the adult illiteracy rate, the number of people who do not have access to clean water, and the number of small children who are underweight are all taken into account to show the shortfall in human development in any region. Often the human poverty index is more revealing than the human development index.
Looking at both these measures of human development together gives an accurate picture of the human development situation in a country.

The ways to measure human development are constantly being refined and newer ways of capturing different elements of human development are being researched. Researchers have found links between the level of corruption or political freedom in a particular region. There is also a discussion regarding a political freedom index and, a listing of the most corrupt countries.

Question 5.
Differentiate between growth and development.
Answer:

Growth	Development
(i)  Growth is quantitative and value neutral.	(i) development means a qualitative change which is always value positive. This means that development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing condition.
(ii) It may have a positive (increase) or negative (decrease) sign.	(ii) it occurs when positive growth takes place in quality.

Question 6.
State the three differences between Human Development Index and Human Poverty Index.
Answer:

Human Development Index	Human Poverty Index
(i) The Human Development Index measures attainments in human development.	(i) The Human Poverty Index measures the shortfall in human development
(ii) Human Development Index (HDI) does not say anything about the distribution	(ii) The Human Poverty Index (HPI) measures the levels of distribution of education, health and resources.
(iii) HDI is an income measure	(iii) HPI is a non-income measure.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Important Questions

Question 1.
Name the four pillars of Human Development. (A.1.2014)
Answer:

• Equity
• Sustainability
• Productivity
• Empowerment

Question 2.
Which state in India has its highest rank in Human Development Index (HDI) value? (A.I. 2014)
Answer:
Kerala State has the highest rank in H.D.I.

Question 3.
Define the concept of human development. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr Haq has described human development as development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.

Question 4.
“Leading a long and healthy life is an important aspect of human development.” Give an argument to support the statement. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
People must be healthy. Healthy people are able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goods. To access the sources, health and education are the key areas in human development.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why does particular region of the world keep reporting low or high levels of human development? Explain by giving suitable reasons. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development. Often small countries have done better than larger ones in human development. Similarly, relatively poorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development.
Example: Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the human development index despite having smaller economies.

Question 2.
Explain the three major areas that decide the rank of the Human Development Index in the world. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Health: The indicator chosen to assess health is the life expectancy at birth. A higher life expectancy means that people have a greater chance of living longer and healthier lives.
Education: The adult literacy rate and the gross enrolment ratio represent access to knowledge. The number of adults, who are able to read and write and the number r of children enrolled in schools show how easy or difficult it is to access knowledge in a particular country,
Access to resources: It is measured in terms of purchasing power (in U.S. dollars). Each of these dimensions is given a weight age of 1/3. The human development index is a sum total of the weights assigned to all these dimensions.

Question 3.
“Equity is one of the most important pillars of human development’. Explain any three human values that are required to give equal access to opportunities to everybody. (A.1.2013)
Answer:

• It refers to making equal , access to opportunities available to everybody,
• The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income, etc.
• Everybody should have equal access to knowledge.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is human development? Analyse the four pillars of human development. (Delhi 201 d, 2017)
Answer:
Human development is a process that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. The four pillars of Human Development

• Equity
• Sustainability
• Productivity
• Empowerment

Equity involves equal opportunity for all the citizens to improve their standard of living in all areas of life. Growth and development should be in such a way that it is sustainable in the long term. This specially relates to the preservation of the environment. Productivity is important for efficient use of scarce resources. Productivity also results ill higher production which leads to better satisfaction of human wants. Empowerment relates to giving more power to the people so that they are able to strengthen themselves socially and economically.

Question 2.
‘The size of a territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development.” Support the statement with examples. (Delhi 2017) (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
The size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development:
Often smaller countries have done better than larger ones in human development. Similarly, relatively poorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development.

For example Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the human development index despite having smaller economies. Similarly, within India, Kerala performs much better than Punjab and Gujarat in human development despite having lower per capita income.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions