Category: CBSE

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following is NOT a land-use category?
(a) Fallow land
(b) Marginal land
(c) Net Area Sown
(d) Culturable Wasteland
Answer:
(b) Marginal land

Question 1.(ii)
What one of the following is the main reason due to which share of forest has shown an increase in the last forty years?
(a) Extensive and efficient efforts of afforestation
(b) Increase in community forest land
(c) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth
(d) Better peoples’ participation in managing forest area.
Answer:
(c) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following is the main form of degradation in irrigated areas?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Wind erosion
(c) Salinisation of soils
(d) Siltation of land
Answer:
(c) Salinisation of soils

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under diyland farming?
(a) Ragi
(b) Jowar
(c) Groundnut
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:
(d) Sugarcane

Question 1.(v)
In which of the following group of countries of the world, HYVs of wheat and rice were developed?
(a) Japan and Australia
(b) U.S.A. and Japan
(c) Mexico and Philippines
(d) Mexico and Singapore
Answer:
(c) Mexico and Philippines

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Differentiate between barren and wasteland and culturable wasteland.
Answer:

Barren and Wasteland	Culturable Wasteland
(a)Barren and wasteland refers to that land which cannot be brought under cultivation practises even with the use of present technology.	(a) Culturable wasteland is the land, which is left fallow for more than 5 years
(b) It is the land which is depleted due to land degradation or other natural factors. Eg. Ravines of chambal.	(b) It can be brought under cultivation with present reclamation technologies.

Question 2.(ii)
Tow would you distinguish between net sown area and gross cropped area?
Answer:

Net Sown Area	Gross Cropped Area
(a)    The physical extent of land in which crops are sown and harvested in a year is known as the net sown area. This is the area actually cultivated.	(a) The total area cultivated once, twice, or multiple times in a year is the gross cropped area
(b) Does not take into account multiple cropping.	(b) Multiple cropping is taken into account.

Question 2.(iii)
What is the difference between dryland and wetland farming?
Answer:

Dryland Farming	Wetland Farming
(a) In India it is confined to areas with rainfall of less than 75 cm in a year. Rainfall is less than the total moisture requirement of the soil.	(a) Rainfall is more than the total moisture requirement of the soil during rainy season.
(b) These areas face problems of drought	(b) Problems of flash flood and soil erosion are faced.
(c) Methods of water conservation are used also water harvesting is carried out.	(c) Aquaculture is practiced in these areas due to excess of water.
(d) Hardy and drought resistant crops like Jowar, Bajra, Gram are grown.	(d) Water intensive crops like rice, sugarcane and jute are grown.
(e) Practised in areas like Northern Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.	(e) Practised in rainier parts of Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 2.(iv)
Why is the strategy of increasing cropping intensity important in a country like India?
Answer:
The strategy of increasing crop intensity aims at increasing the productivity of a piece of land by increasing the number of times it is cultivated in a year. It aims at increasing the productivity of agriculture by increasing the productivity of already cultivated area. It is important for country like India where there is dearth of land so it is difficult to bring new pieces of land under cultivation to meet the ever-increasing demand of rising population.

Question 2.(v)
How do you measure total cultivable land?
Answer:
Total cultivable land is the entire land which can be cultivated either in the current state or after reclaiming it through the available technologies. It is a sum of total culturable wasteland, Fallow other than current fallow, current fallow and net sown area.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
What are the different types of environmental problems of land resources in India?
Answer:
Land resources in India are faced with multiple issues that lead to decline in their productivity. The causes are both environmental and related to malpractices. The main environmental issues confronting Indian resources are:

Dependence on Erratic Monsoon: Irrigation covers only about 33 per cent of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall. Poor monsoon adversely affects the supply of canal water for irrigation. Rainfall in drought prone areas is too meager and highly unreliable. Even the areas receiving high annual rainfall experience considerable fluctuations. This makes them vulnerable to both droughts and floods. Droughts and floods continue to be twin menace in India.

Low productivity: The yield of the crops in the country is low in comparison to the international level. Indian agriculture is also very low in comparison to international level. The vast rainfed areas of the country, particularly drylands, which mostly grow coarse cereals, pulses and oilseeds, have very low yields.

Degradation of Cultivable Land: One of the serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development is degradation of land resources. It leads to depletion of soil fertility. In irrigated areas a large tract of agricultural land lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and waterlogging. Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile. Leguminous crops have been displaced from the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping. This has obliterated the process of natural fertilization such as nitrogen fixation. Rainfed areas also experience degradation of several types like soil erosion by water and wind erosion which are often induced by human activities.

Question 3.(ii)
What are the important strategies for agricultural development followed in the post-independence period in India?
Answer:
Indian agricultural economy was largely subsistence in nature before Independence. During partition about one-third of the irrigated land in undivided India went to Pakistan. After Independence, the immediate goal of the Government was to increase foodgrains production by

• switching over from cash crops to food crops;
• intensification of cropping over already cultivated land; and
• increasing cultivated area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough.

Later, Intensive Agricultural District Programme (IADP) and Intensive Agricultural Area Programme (IAAP) were launched. But two consecutive droughts during mid-1960s resulted in food crisis in the country.

New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) known as high yielding varieties (HYVs) were available for cultivation by mid-1960s. India took advantage of this and introduced package technology comprising HYVs, along with chemical fertilizers in irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh hnd Gujarat leading fast agricultural growth. This spurt of agricultural growth came to be known as ‘Green Revolution’. This also gave fillip to the development of a large number of agro-inputs, agro-processing industries and small-scale industries. This strategy of agricultural development made the country self-reliant in food grain production.

The Planning Commission of India focused its attention on the problems of agriculture in rained areas in 1980s. It initiated agro-climatic planning in 1988 to induce regionally balanced agricultural development in the country. It also emphasized ‘ the need for diversification of agriculture and harnessing of resources for development of dairy farming, poultry, horticulture, live- tock rearing and aquaculture.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define land-use.
Answer:
The different uses to which land is put to use. Different types of land are used for different purposes. Human beings thus, use land as a resource for production as well as residence and recreation.

Question 2.
What factors influence land-use to a large extent?
Answer:
Land-use in a region, to a large extent, is influenced by the nature of economic activities carried out in that region.

Question 3.
Define Common Property Resources (CPR).
Answer:
CPR’s can be defined as community’s natural resource, where every member has the right of access and usage with some obligations, without anybody having the rights to property over them.

Question 4.
How is cropping intensity calculated?
Answer:
Cropping intensity is the number of times of a crop is planted per year in a given agricultural area. It is the ratio of effective crop area harvested to the physical area.

Question 5.
Which is the 2nd most important cereal crop in India?
Answer:
Wheat is the 2nd most important cereal crop in India.

Question 6.
Where is bajra grown in India?
Answer:
Bajra is grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, UP, Rajasthan and Haryana.

Question 7.
What are the main fibre crops of India? How are they used?
Answer:
Cotton and jute are fibre crops of India. They provide fibre for making cloth, bags, sacks and other items of daily necessities and fashion.

Question 8.
What is India’s rank in sugarcane production of the world?
Answer:.
India ranks second after Brazil in sugarcane production of world as per 2011.

Question 9.
Name the beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea and coffee are two main beverage crops of India.

Question 10.
Cotton is grown in which season? Name another crop of this season.
Answer:
Cotton is tropical crop grown in kharif season in semi arid areas of the country. Rice is another kharif crop.

Question 11.
Name the coarse cereals.
Answer:
Jowar, Bajra, maize and ragi are course cereals.

Question 12.
What is India’s rank in cotton production?
Answer:
India ranks 4th in cotton production after China, USA and Pakistan.

Question 13.
What percentage of cropped area in India is under rice & wheat cultivation?
Answer:
25% of the total cropped area is under rice, and 14% of the total cropped area is under wheat cultivation in India.

Question 14.
What is India’s rank in rice production in the world?
Answer:
India ranks second in rice production in the world after China.

Question 15.
What are the functions of Land Revenue Department?
Answer:
Land-use records are maintained by Land Revenue Department. The land- use categories add up to reporting area, which is somewhat different from the geographical area.

Question 16.
What are the functions of the Survey of India?
Answer:
The Survey of India is responsible for measuring geographical area of administrative units in India.

Question 17.
Explain two reasons for the increase pressure on agricultural land in developing country like India.
Answer:
Two reasons for the increase pressure on agricultural land in developing country are:
In developing countries, share of population development on agriculture declines more slowly compared to decline in sector’s share in GDP. The number of people that agricultural sector has to feed is increasing day by day.

Question 18.
Why is it important for India to develop land saving technology?
Answer:
In India land area is extremely less in comparison to its population. Therefore, India needs to develop land saving technology.

Question 19.
Why are various crop seasons not found in south India?
Answer:
Since weather does not change much in south India therefore the climate is suitable for the same types of crops throughout the year. Therefore,
there are not various crop seasons in south India.

Question 20.
Explain why does the southern parts of India grow the same crops thrice a year?
Answer:
In southern India the temperature remains high throughout the year. It is suitable for growing tropical crops throughout the year. Thus, in this region the tropical varieties of crop are grown thrice in a year.

Question 21.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:
The crops which provide us fiber for preparing cloth, bags, sacks and a number of other items. Cotton and jute are two main fiber crops grown in India.

Question 22.
What are beverage crops?
Answer:
Those crops which are used as beverage after processing are called beverage crops. Example; Tea and coffee.

Question 23.
Name the programmes initiated in the end of 1960 for development of agriculture.
Answer:
Green revolution or package technology was initiated in the end of 1960s for development of agriculture.

Question 24.
What do you mean by low productivity?
Answer:
Low productivity means output per unit of labour employed or per unit of land use is low.

Question 25.
Name the two HYV seeds imported in 1960.
Answer:
New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) were imported in 1960.

Question 26.
What do you mean by small and fragmented landholdings?
Answer:
Landholdings of less than 1 hectare are called small landholdings. When these are scattered at different places, it is called fragmented landholdings.

Question 27.
What do you mean by under¬employment?
Answer:
When a person is working below his potential, he is said to be under-employed and this situation is called under¬employment.

Question 28.
What is barren and wasteland?
Answer:
The land which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology. ,

Question 29.
Define fallow land?
Answer:
This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Fallowing is a cultural practise adopted for giving the land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.

Question 30.
What is fallow other than current fallow?
Answer:
This is also a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorized as culturable wasteland.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which four categories witnessed a decline in land use? Why?
Answer:
The four categories that have registered a decline are barren and wasteland, culturable wasteland, area under pastures and tree crops and fallow lands. The following explanations can be given for the declining trends:

• As the pressure on land increased, both from the agricultural and non agricultural sectors, the wastelands and culturable wastelands have witnessed decline over time.
• The decline in land under pastures and grazing lands can be explained by pressure from agricultural land. Illegal encroachment due to expansion of cultivation on common pasture lands is largely responsible for this decline.

Question 2.
What are the varieties of rice in India?
Answer:
Rice is a tropical crop and has about 3,000 varieties that are grown in different agro-climatic regions from sea level to about 2,000 m altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry but irrigated areas of the west. In southern states and West Bengal two to three crops of rice in an agricultural year. In West Bengal farmers grow three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’. In Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a kharif crop during southwest Monsoon season.

Question 3.
What is the importance of pulses in India?
Answer:
Pulses are a very important as part of vegetarian food as a source of protein. Since these are legume crops they help in restoring the natural fertility of soils through the nitrogen fixing bacteria rhizobium in their roots. Since they do not much care, they can be grown in drier parts of the country, where the fine cereals cannot be grown.

Question 4.
What problems are faced by the fibre crops in India?
Answer:
India lost a big cotton growing area to Pakistan during partition and jute growing area to East Pakistan that is Bangladesh. Also these fibres are facing stiff competition from synthetic fibre as they are cheap, durable and easy to work with.

Question 5.
Write a note on tea cultivation in India.
Answer:
Tea is a plantation crop used as beverage. Black tea leaves are fermented whereas green tea leaves are unfermented. In India, tea plantation started in 1840’s in Brahmaputra valley of Assam which still is a major tea growing area in the country. Later, it was introduced in the sub-Himalayan region of West Bengal. It is also grown in Nilgiri and Cardamom hills. India accounts for about 28 per cent of total production in the world. Presently, it ranks third among tea exporting countries in the world after Sri Lanka and China. Assam accounts for about 53.2 per cent of the total cropped area and contributes more than half of total production of tea in the country. West Bengal and Tamil Nadu are the other leading producers of tea.

Question 6.
What is the importance of coarse cereals in India?
Answer:
Coarse cereals like Jowar, Bajra, ragi and maize occupy about 17% of the total cropped area. These crops are sometimes grown as part of mixed cropping and are grown almost all over dry and semi arid parts of India since they do not require much care, fertilizer, etc. So, the areas where rice and wheat are not grown, these are grown by farmers who cannot afford to grow fine cereals. Coarse cereals also have a very high nutritious value. For a developing country like India, they are highly suitable for poor farmers to grow them on inferior quality, drier lands.

Question 7.
Why does India need irrigation?
Answer:
In India irrigation is needed for the spatio-temporal variation in rainfall. The water intensive crops makes irrigation necessary. Irrigation also makes multiple cropping possible. HYV varieties of crops require assured water supply at the right time to give the maximum production.

Question 8.
What are the advantages of common property resources?
Answer:

• CPR’s provide fodder for the livestock and fuel for the households.
• It provides products like fruits, nuts, fibre, medical plants, etc.
• It provides livelihood of the landless and marginal farmers and other weaker sections. They depend on income from their livestock due to limited access to land.
• CPR’s are also important for women to collect most of the fodder and fuel in rural areas.

Question 9.
Explain the conditions for the growth of wheat.
Answer:
Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India after rice.
Conditions:

• It is primarily a crop of temperate zone. It is cultivated in India during winter, i.e. rabi season.
• It requires fertile soil, therefore about 85 per cent of total area under this crop is concentrated in north and central regions of the country, i.e. Indo Gangetic Plain, Malwa Plateau and Himalayas up to 2,700 m altitude.
• Being a rabi crop, it is mostly grown under irrigated conditions. But it is a rained crop in Himalayan highlands and parts of Malwa plateau in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 10.
Explain the conditions for the growth of rice.
Answer:
Rice is a staple food for the overwhelming majority of population in India.
Conditions:

• Though, it is considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3,000 varieties which are grown in different agro-climatic regions.
• These are successfully grown from sea level to about 2,000 m altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to diy but irrigated areas of Punjab, Haiyana, western U.P. and northern Rajasthan.
• In southern states and West Bengal the climatic conditions allow the cultivation of two or three crops of rice in an agricultural year. But in Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a kharif crop during southwest Monsoon season.
• West Bengal, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh were the leading rice producing states in the country in 2009-10.

Question 11.
Which crops are included in oil seeds? Give a brief account of their production.
Answer:
Oil seeds include:

• Groundnut
• Rapeseed and mustard
• Soyabean and
• Sunflower

The oil seeds are produced for extracting edible oils. Drylands of Malwa plateau, Marathwada, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Telangana and Rayalseema region of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka plateau are oil seeds growing regions of India. These crops together occupy about 14 per cent of total cropped area in the country.

Question 12.
Give the desired conditions for the growth of cotton.
Answer:
Desired Conditions:

• Cotton is a tropical crop grown in kharif season in semi-arid areas of the country.
• Cotton requires clear sly during flowering stage.
• Black soil is most suitable for production of cotton.
• Leading producers of this crop are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana. Per hectare output of

cotton is high under irrigated conditions in north western region of the country. Its yield is very low in Maharashtra where it is grown under rained conditions.

Question 13.
Give the desired conditions for the growth of sugarcane.
Answer:
Desired Conditions:

• Sugarcane is a crop of tropical areas. Under rained conditions, it is cultivated in sub-humid and humid climates.
• It is largely an irrigated crop in India.
• In Indo-Gangetic plain, its cultivation is largely concentrated in Uttar Pradesh. Sugarcane growing area in western India is spread over Maharashtra and Gujarat.
• In Southern India, it is cultivated in irrigated tracts of Karnataka.

Question 14.
What is package technology?
Answer:
New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) known as high yielding varieties (HYVs) were available for cultivation by mid-1960s. India also introduced package technology comprising HYVs, along with chemical fertilisers in irrigated, areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat. Its basic need was assured supply of soil moisture through irrigation. This strategy of agricultural development paid dividends instantly and increased the foodgrains production at very fast rate. This spurt of agricultural growth came to be known as ‘Green Revolution’ which is a result of package technology.

Question 15.
Explain the land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records?
Answer:
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows:

• Forests
• Land put to non-agricultural Uses
• Barren and Wastelands
• Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands
• Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (Not included is Net sown Area)
• Culturable Wasteland
• Current Fallow
• Fallow other than Current Fallow
• Net Area Sown

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the land-use categories based on Land revenue records.
Answer:
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows: (zj Forests: It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest growth.

• Land put to Non-agricultural Uses: Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc. are included in this category.
• Barren and Wastelands: The land which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology.
• Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands: Most of this type land is owned by the village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small proportion of this land is privately owned. The land owned by the village panchayat comes under ‘Common Property Resources’.
• Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (Not included is Net sown Area): The land under orchards and fruit trees are included in this categoiy. Much of this land is privately owned.
• Culturable Waste-Land: Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is included in this categoiy. It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through reclamation practices.
• Current Fallow: This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.
• Fallow other than Current Fallow: This is also a cultivable land which is left uncultivatedfor more than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorised as culturable wasteland.
• Net Area Sown: The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area.

Question 2.
How is land significant/valuable in the livelihood of people?
Answer:
Land resource is more crucial to the livelihood of the people depending on agriculture:

• Agriculture is a purely land based activity unlike secondary and tertiary activities. In other words, contribution of land in agricultural output is more compared to its contribution in the outputs in the other sectors. Thus, lack of access to land is directly correlated with incidence of poverty in rural areas.
• Quality of land has a direct bearing on the productivity of agriculture, which is not true for other activities.
• In rural areas, aside from its value as a productive factor, land ownership has a social value and serves as a security for credit, natural hazards or life contingencies, and also adds to the social status.

Question 3.
What is the staple crop of our country? How many varieties are there? What is India’s contribution to the world? Where is it grown in India?
Answer:
Rice is the staple crop of the country. Rice is a tropical crop and has about 3,000 varieties that are grown in different agro-climatic regions from sea level to about 2,000 m altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry but irrigated areas of the west. In southern states and West Bengal two to three crops of rice in an agricultural year. In West Bengal farmers grow three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’.

India contributes 21.6 per cent of rice production in the world and ranked second after China (2008-09). West Bengal, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh were the leading rice producing states in the country in 2009-10. The yield level of rice is high in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Kerala. The yield of this crop is very low in rainfed areas of M.P., Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

Question 4.
Show with example the development of agricultural with technology.
Answer:
There has been a significant increase in agricultural output and improvement in technology during the last fifty years.

• Production and yield of many crops such as rice and wheat has increased at an impressive rate. The production of sugarcane, oil seeds and cotton has also increased appreciably. India ranked first in the production of pulses and jute in 2008-09. It is the second largest producer of rice, wheat, groundnut, sugarcane and vegetables.
• Expansion of irrigation has played a very crucial role in enhancing agricultural output in the country and helped in the introduction of modern agricultural society such as high yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides and farm machinery. The net irrigated area in the country has increased from 20.85 to 54.66 million ha over the period 1950-51 to 2000-01. Over these 50 years, area irrigated more than once in an agricultural year has increased from 1.71 to 20.46 million ha.
• In various areas of the country modern agricultural technology has spread very fast. Consumption of chemical fertilizers has increased by 15 times since mid-sixties. In 2001-02, per hectare consumption of chemical fertilizers in India was 91 kg which was at par with average consumption in the world (90 kg). Punjab and Haryana uses three to four times of this. Since the high yielding varieties are highly susceptible to pests and diseases, the use of pesticides has increased significantly since 1960’s.

Question 5.
Write a note on the problems of Indian agriculture.
Ans. The nature of problems faced by •Indian agriculture varies according to agro-ecological and historical experiences of its different regions. But there are some problems which are common and range from physical constraints to institutional hindrances. Some problems are:

• Dependence on Erratic Monsoon: Irrigation covers only about 33 per cent of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall. Spatio- temporal variations in rainfall causes fluctuations in steady supply of water and makes them vulnerable to both drought and floods.
• Low productivity: The yield of the crops in the country is low in comparison to the international level. Because of the very high pressure on the land resources, the labour productivity in Indian agriculture is also very low in comparison to international level.
• Constraints of Financial Resources and Indebtedness: The inputs of modem agriculture are very expensive for marginal and small farmers for them to invest in agriculture. Crop failures and low returns from agriculture have forced them to fall in the trap of indebtedness.
• Lack of Land Reforms: In India there had been unequal distribution of land over the years. Though land reforms were made after independence, they were not implemented affectively due to lack of strong political will. Lack of implementation of land reforms resulted in unequal distribution of cultivable land.
• Small Farm Size and Fragmentation of Landholdings: There are a large number of marginal and small farmers in the country. The average size of land holding is shrinking due to law of inheritance. The land holdings are mostly fragmented. Even the states where consolidation of land holdings was carried out once, second consolidation is required. The small size fragmented landholdings are uneconomic.
• Lack of Commercialization: A large number of farmers produce crops for self-consumption. These farmers do not have enough land resources to produce more than their requirement. Most of the small and marginal farmers grow food grains, which are meant for their own family consumption.
• Vast Under-employment: There is a massive under-employment in the agricultural sector in India, particularly in the un-irrigated tracts. The people engaged in agriculture do not have the opportunity to work round the year.
• Degradation of Cultivable Land: Degradation of land resources is a serious problem caused due to faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development which leads to depletion of soil fertility.Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has made the soil toxic. Absence of leguminous plants and decrease in duration of fallow land has reducd natural fertilization of soil.

Question 6.
Define common property resources.
Answer:
Land, according to its ownership can broadly be classified under two broad heads – private land and common property resources (CPR’s). While the former is owned by an individual or a group of individuals, the latter is owned by the state meant for the use of the community, fodder form a degraded area of CPR. CPR’s can be defined as community’s natural resource, where every member has the right of access and usage with specified obligations, without anybody having property rights over them. Community forests, pasture lands, village water bodies and other public space are examples of CPR’s which are used and managed by households.

CPR’s provide fodder for the livestock and fuel for the households along with other minor forest products like fruits, nuts, fibre, medicinal plants, etc. In rural areas, such land is of particular relevance for the livelihood of the landless and marginal farmers and other weaker sections since many of them depend on income from their livestock due to the fact that they have limited access to land. CPR’s also are important for women as most of the fodder and fuel collection is done by them in rural areas. They have to devote long hours in collecting fuel and fodder from a degraded area of CPR.

Question 7.
Classify farming based on the ‘source of moisture’.
Answer:
On the basis of main source of moisture for crops, the farming can be classified as irrigated and rainfed (barani). There is difference in the nature of irrigated farming as well based on objective of irrigation, i.e. protective or productive. The objective of protective irrigation is to protect the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency which often means that irrigation acts as a supplementary source of water over and above the rainfall. The strategy of this kind of irrigation is to provide soil moisture to maximum possible area. Productive irrigation is meant to provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity. In such irrigation the water input per unit area of cultivated land is higher than protective irrigatioh. Rainfed farming is further classified on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season into dryland and wetland farming. In India, the dryland farming is largely confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.

These regions grow hardy and drought resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar (fodder crops) and practise various measures of soil moisture conservation and rain water harvesting. In wetland farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of plants during rainy season. Such regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards. These areas grow various water intensive crops such as rice, jute and sugarcane and practise aquaculture in the fresh water bodies.

Question 8.
What are the three economic factors that affect land-use?
OR
Describe the three types of changes that of changes that an economy undergoes which affect its land use pattern.
Answer:
Three factors that affect land-use are as follows:

• The size of the economy: The size of the economy grows over time as a result of increasing population, change in income levels, available technology and associated factors. As a result, the pressure on land will increase with time and marginal lands would come under use.
• The composition of the economy: The composition of the economy would undergo a change over time. In other words, the secondary and the tertiary sectors usually grow much faster than the primary sector,, specifically the agricultural sector. This type of change is common in developing countries like India. This process would result in a gradual shift of land from agricultural uses to non-agricultural uses. Such changes are sharp around large urban areas. The agricultural land is being used for building purposes.
• Continuous pressure on agricultural land: Though the contribution of the agricultural activities reduces over time, the pressure on land for agricultural activities does not decline. The reasons for continued pressure on agricultural land are:
  • In developing countries, the share of population dependent on agriculture usually declines far slowly as compared to the decline in the sector’s share in GDP.
  • The number of people that the agricultural sector has to feed keeps increasing day by day.

Question 9.
Which three categories have undergone increase in land use pattern? Explain why.
Answer:
Categories that have undergone increase in land use pattern are as follows:

• The rate of increase is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural uses. This is due to the changing structure of Indian economy, which is increasingly depending on the contribution from industrial and services sectors and expansion of related infrastructural facilities. Also, an expansion of area under both urban and rural settlements has added to the increase. Thus, the area under non-agriculturaluses is increasing at the expense of wastelands and agricultural land.
• The increase in the share under forest, as explained before, can be accounted for by increase in the demarcated area under forest rather than an actual increase in the forest cover in the countiy.
• The increase in the current fallow cannot be explained from information pertaining to only two points. The trend of current fallow fluctuates a great deal over years, depending on the variability of rainfall and cropping cycles.
• The increase in net area sown is a recent phenomenon due to use of culturable waste land for agricultural purpose. Before which it was registering a slow decrease. There are indications that most of the decline had occurred due to the increases in area under non-agricultural use.

Question 10.
Give statistical account of small and fragmented landholdings. Why are small and fragmented landholdings undesirable?
Answer:
There are a large number of marginal and small farmers in the countiy. More than 60 per cent of the ownership holdings have a size smaller than one hectare. Furthermore, about 40 per cent of the farmers have operational holding size smaller than 0.5 hectare. The average size of landholding is shrinking further under increasing population pressure. Furthermore, in India, the landholdings are mostly fragmented. There are some states where consolidation of holding has not been carried out even once. Even the states where it has been carried out once, second consolidation is required as landholdings have fragmented again in the process of division of land among the owners of next generations.

The small size fragmented landholdings are uneconomic. A lot of land gets wasted in fencing and modern farming methods cannot be used for small landholdings.

Question 11.
What is the importance of pulses in our diet? What are the main pulses grown in India?
Answer:
Pulses are a very important ingredient of vegetarian food as these are rich sources of proteins. These are legume crops which increase the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen fixation.

• India is a leading producer of pulses and accounts for about one-fifth of the total production of pulses in the world.
• The cultivation of pulses in the country is largely concentrated in the drylands of Deccan and central plateaus and northwestern parts of the countiy.
• Pulses occupy about 11 per cent of the total cropped area in the country.
• Being the rainfed crops of drylands, the yields of pulses are low and fluctuate from year to year.
• Gram and tur are the main pulses cultivated in India. Gram is cultivated in subtropical areas. It is mostly a rainfed crop cultivated during rabi season in central, western and northwestern parts of the countiy. Tur (Arhar) is the second important pulse crop in the countiy. It is also known as red gram or pigeon pea. It is cultivated over marginal lands and under rainfed conditions in the dry areas of central and southern states of the countiy. This crop occupies only about 2 per cent of total cropped area of India.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Differentiates

Question 1.
What is the basic difference between Land Revenue Department and Survey of India?
Answer:

Land Revenue Department	Survey of India
It changes somewhat depending on the estimates of the land revenue records	It does not change, and stays fixed as per Survey of India measurements

Question 2.
Differentiate between protective irrigation and productive irrigation.
Answer:

Basis	Protective irrigation	Productive irrigation
objective	The objective of protective farming is to protect the crops from adverse affects of lack of soil moisture.	Irrigation is done to achieve high productivity.
Irrigation	Irrigation acts as an additional source of water over and above the rainfall.	It tends to provide sufficient soil moisture in cropping season.
Water requirement	The strategy of this kind of irrigation is to provide soil moisture to maximum possible area.	In such irrigation the water input per unit area of cultivated land is higher than protective irrigation.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Compare the features of productive and protective irrigation.
Answer:
Protective Irrigation:

• To protect crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency.
• To provide soil moisture to maximum possible area.
• To supplement rain fed irrigation.

Productive Irrigation:

• To provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
• The water input in per unit area of cultivated land is higher than protective irrigation.
• To grow various water intensive crops such as rice, sugarcane etc.

Question 2.
Why is traditional cropping pattern changing in India nowadays
Answer:
Traditional cropping pattern is changing nowadays because:

• Expansion in irrigation facilities has facilitated growth of non-traditional crops. For example, growing rice in Punjab, wheat in West Bengal etc.
• Modem technology or advent of package technology.
• Changing food habits of people.
• Initiation of policy of liberalization and free market economy.
• Easy credit facility to farmers.

Question 3.
The Green Revolution was not equally successful in all parts of India. Why?
Answer:
The Green Revolution was not equally successful in all parts of India due to following reasons:

• Irrigation facilities were limited only to Punjab, Haryana and Western U.P.
• Farmers were not aware of modern technology and its accessibility.
• Good and high yielding varieties of seeds were not easily available because of faulty distribution and storage system.
• Poverty of farmers.
• Small size of land holdings.
• Lack of investment capacity.

Question 4.
“Indian farmers gamble with the monsoon”. Illustrate this statement.
Answer:
It is rightly said that Indian farmers gamble with monsoon. It can be proved through following facts:

• Uneven distribution of rainfall-spatial and temporal.
• Uncertainty of monsoon.
• Lack of irrigation facilities.
• Frequent flood and drought is a common phenomenon associated with the monsoon.

Question 5.
Why do the large number of farmers produce crops for self-consumption in India?
Answer:
In India many farmers are producing crops for self-consumption. Following reasons are responsible for it:

• Limited and small land holdings.
• Most of the farmers grow food grains to meet their family requirements.
• Lack of infrastructure and poor economic affordability.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Rice producing states
(ii) Wheat producing states
Answer:
(i) West Bengal, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Tamil nadu
(ii) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and M.P.

Question 2.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Major maize producing states
(ii) Major jowar producing states
(iii) Major bajra producing states
Answer:
(i) M.P., A.P., Karnataka, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Maharashtra, Karnataka, M.P., A.P.
(iii) Maharashtra, Gujarat, U.P., Rajasthan and Haryana

Question 3.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols,
(i) Leading producer of groundnut
(ii) Leading producer of sugarcane
Answer:
(i) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra
(ii) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat

Question 4.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Leading cotton producing states
(ii) Leading jute producing states
Answer:
(i) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh
(ii) West Bengal, Bihar, Assam

Question 5.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Tea producing states
(ii) Coffee producing states
Answer:
(i) Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu
(ii) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How is the productive irrigation able to achieve high productivity in India? (A.I. 2009)
Answer:
Productive irrigation provides timely water in required quantity to crops and help in achieving high productivity in India.

Question 2.
What is the main objective of productive irrigation in India? (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
The main objective of productive irrigation is to achieve high productivity in India.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of India in the production of rice in the world? (A.I., Delhi 2011)
Answer:
India contributes 21.6 per cent of rice production in the world and ranked second after China.

Question 4.
Mention the two processes that induce land degradation in India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development.

Question 5.
Classify rainfed farming on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Classification of Rain fed farming:
(i) Dry land farming
(ii) Wet land farming

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
“Land degradation caused by human made processes are more harmful than natural processes in India.” Analyse the statement with suitable example. (Delhi 2009)
OR
Explain any three factors responsible for land degradation in India. (Delhi 2010)
OR
“Degradation of cultivable land is one of the most serious problems that arises out of irrigation and agricultural development in India.” Support this statement with three points. (CBSE 2011)
OR
How is the degradation of cultivable land one of the serious problems in India? Explain in any three points. (CBSE 2010)
Answer:

• A large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisabon of soils and waterlogging,
• Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile.
• Leguminous crops have been displaced from the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping.

Question 2.
Classify rainfed farming of India into two categories on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season. Explain any two features of each. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Rainfed farming is classified on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season into dryland and wetland farming.

Question 3.
Classify Indian farming into two groups on the basis of main source of moisture for crops. Write two features of each.
Answer:
On the basis of main source of moisture for crops, Indian farming can be classified into irrigated and rainfed farming. Features of irrigated farming:

• It protects the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency.
• It provides sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.

Features of rainfed farming:

• Hardy and drought resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram are grown.
• Practise various measures of soil moisture conservation and rain water harvesting.

Question 4.
Describe any three characteristics of ‘wetland farming’ in India. (A.I. 2013)
Answer:
Characteristics:

• In wetland farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of planis during rainy season.
• These regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards.
• In these regions various water intensive crops are grown such as rice, jute and sugarcane.
• In the fresh water bodies aquaculture is pracitsed.

Question 5.
State any two characteristics each of the three distinct ‘cropping seasons’ of India. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

Kharif Crop Season:

• Kharif season largely concides with South West Monsson.
• Generally it prevails between June to September.
• Rice, Maize, Ragi Jowar, Bajara, Cotton, Jute are the major crops of this season.

Rabi Crop Season:

• This season begins with the onset of winter.
• It begins in October and November and ends in March-April.
• Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds, Masturd and Barley are its major crops of this season.

Zaid Crop Season:

• Zaid is the short duration cropping season.
• It begins after harvesting of rabi crops.
• The cultivation of watermelon, cucumbers, fruits, vegetables and fodder crops are largely grown in this season.

6. Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow: (Delhi 2017)

Question 7.(1)
Which land use category has shown the highest increasing trend? What percentage in reporting area has increased in that category, during the given period?
Answer:
Highest increasing trend in land use – Area under Non agricultural uses & 5:9 or 80%

Question 7.(2)
Explain any two reasons responsible for the increasing trend in that category.
Answer:

• Changing structure of the Indian Economy.
• Expansion of industrial and service sector.
• Expansion of related infrastructural facilities.
• Expansion of area under urban and rural settlemc its.
• It is expanding at the expense of waste lands and agricultural lands.
  (Any two reasons to be explained)

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘cropping intensity’. Describe the three cropping seasons in India. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Intensity of cropping means the number of crops raised on a field during an agricultural year. It indicates the efficiency of land use. The three cropping seasons of India are: kharif, rabi and zaid.

Kharif: It coincides with southwest Monsoon. This season starts from June and ends in September. During this season tropical crops such as rice, cotton, jute, jo war. bajra and tur are grown.

Rabi: The rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-April. The low temperature conditions during this season facilitate the cultivation of temperate and subtropical crops such as wheat, gram and mustard.

Zaid: Zaid is a short duration summer cropping season beginning after harvesting of rabi crops. Watermelons, cucumbers, vegetables and fodder crops are cultivated during this season.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of foodgrains in the Indian agricultural economy. Describe any three characteristics of rice cultivation. (CBSE, A.I. 2015)
OR
Explain the importance of food grains in the Indian agricultural economy. Describe any three characteristics of rice cultivation. (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
The importance of foodgrains in Indian agricultural economy:

• These crops occupy about two-third of total cropped area in the country.
• They are dominant crops in all parts of the country whether they have subsistence or commercial agricultural economy.
• They feed a large population of the country.
• They are used as raw materials in the agro-based industries.

Question 3.
“Erratic monsoon” and ‘Indebtness are the major problems of India agriculture.’ Suggest and explain the measures to overcome these problems. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Suggestions to solve the problem of erratic monsoon are:

• Expansion of Irrigation Facilities: Irrigation covers only 33 per cent of cultivated area. The rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall. More and more cultivated area should be under irrigation to get more production from the same field.
• Efficient use of water is essential.
• Improved methods for irrigation be adopted.
• Rainwater harvesting is required to recharge ground water and to check the declining ground water table so that the availability of ground water continue for irrigation.
• Linkage of rivers.
• Maintenance of existing water bodies such as lakes, ponds, tanks etc.
• Availability of drought resistant good quality of seeds.

Suggestions for solving the problem of rural indebtedness:

• Minimum support price.
• Provision of subsidies on seeds and fertilizers.
• Cheap loan facilities to be provided to the farmers for their purchases and marriages.
• Gramin banks, Banks and Cooperative banks to be opened more and more in rural areas.
• Storage facilities be provided to the farmers.
• Rural roads should be developed.
• To supplement the economy of farmers, rearing of wild animals is essential.

Question 4.
Review any five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture:
To increase food grains production by

• Intensification of cropping over cultivated land.
• Increase cultivated area wherever possible.
• To use HYV seeds, .
• Easy availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides.
• Expansion of irrigation facilities,
• Use modern agricultural technology.
  ( Review any five points/measures)

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following towns is NOT located on a river bank?
(a) Agra
(b) Bhopal
(c) Patna
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(b) Bhopal

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following is NOT the part of the definition of a town as per the census of India?
(a) Population density of 400 persons per sq km.
(b) Presence of municipality, corporation, etc.
(c) More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector.
(d) Population size of more than 5,000 persons.
Answer:
(c) More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector.

Question 1.(iii)
In which one of the following environments does one expect the presence of dispersed rural settlements?
(a) Alluvial plains of Ganga
(b) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan
(c) Lower valleys of Himalayas
(d) Forests and hills in north-east
Answer:
(d) Forests and hills in north-east

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following group of cities have been arranged in the sequence of their ranks i.e. 1, 2, 3 and 4 in size?
(a) Greater Mumbai, Bangalore, Kolkata, Chennai
(b) Delhi, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
(c) Kolkata, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
(d) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai
Answer:
(d) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
What are garrisson towns? What is their function?
Answer:
Garrison towns are the towns whose formation is a result of the setting up of a military base. They are also referred to as cantonment towns. Ambala, Mhow, etc can be referred to as garrison towns. The main function of the garrison towns is to cater to the needs of defence and people employed in defence services of the nation. These are specially designed for the purpose of military, navy or airforce activities.

Question 2.(ii)
How can one identify an urban agglomeration?
Answer:
An urban agglomeration consists of any one of the following three combinations:

• a town and its adjoining urban outgrowths,
• two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and
• a city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread.

Examples of urban outgrowth are railway colonies, university campus, port area, military cantonment, etc. located within the revenue limits of a village or villages contiguous to the town or city.

Question 2.(iii)
What are the main factors for the location of villages in desert regions?
Answer:
Desert regions are characterized by aridity that is lack of water, hence scanty vegetation which is xerophytic in nature. Main factor in the desert for settlement patterns is supply of water. In Rajasthan in India there tend to be clustered settlements around oasis and other regions of water availability. Since these are the only few regions where water is available, therefore settlement around the water source become clustered and is the main driving force for habitation.

Question 2.(iv)
What are metropolitan cities? How are they different from urban agglomerations?
Answer:
According to census of India the cities with population between 1 to 5 million are termed as metropolitan cities. An urban agglomeration is a stretch of urban area which may comprise two or more cities. Many of the metropolitan cities of India are basically urban agglomeration.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Discuss the features of different types of rural settlements. What are the factors responsible for the settlement patterns in different physical environments?
Answer:
In India compact or clustered village of a few hundred houses is common, particularly in the northern plains. But, there are areas, with other forms of rural settlements. There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India. These include:

• physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water
• cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion
• security factors – defense against thefts and robberies. Guided by these factors rural settlements in India can broadly

be put into four types:

• Clustered, agglomerated or nucleated,
• Semi-clustered or fragmented,
• Hamleted, and
• Dispersed or isolated.

Clustered Settlements: The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built . up area of houses. Here the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets give rise to pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc. These are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. People live in compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.

Semi-Clustered Settlements: Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. In this case, one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village. Generally, the land-owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.

Hamleted Settlements: This settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally • called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. This segmentation of a large village is often due to social and ethnic factors.

Dispersed Settlements: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.

Question 3.(ii)
Can one imagine the presence of only one-function town? Why do the cities become multi-functional?
Answer:
Towns and cities are generally classified on the basis of the functions they perform. No town performs a single function, rather they are classified on the basis of the dominant function they perform. Even specialised cities, as they grow into metropolises become multifunctional wherein industry, business, administration, transport, etc. become important. The functions get so intertwined that the city can not be categorised in a particular functional class. Due to varying needs of human beings all the people of a town cannot be engaged in a single activity. Even if a town is a garrison town, basic trade activities must be carried out to provide the residents with the articles of day to day need, food items etc. To support the dominant activity of the town, the ancillary activities start emerging.

Mumbai is a transport town due to presence of port in Mumbai but it is also hub of international trade in India, hence is a trade town, Also it is the commercial capital of the country due to varying commercial activities, which are a result of the presence of large capital in the city because of it being a trading town and a port city. Therefore the presence of a dominant of a single function also attracts people to the town, which in turn create conditions conducive for development of other functions hence, towns become multifunctional. The functions performed in a town are extremely dynamic, new functions keep’ on adding and old functions getting linked with each other. Therefore, in modern economies no town can be a single functioned town.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define human settlements.
Answer:
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings of any type or size where human beings live. It involves grouping of people and apportioning of territory as a resource base.

Question 2 .
Which factors help in determining types of settlement?
Answer:
Types of settlement are determined by the extent of the built up area and inter house distance.

Question 3.
Define and name an ancient town.
Answer:
Ancient towns are over 2000 years old with a historical background and developed as religious and cultural centres. Varanasi, Prayag, Pataliputra, Madurai are examples of ancient towns.

Question 4.
Which are the medieval towns of India?
Answer:
Some medieval towns of India are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Agra, Lucknow, Nagpur, etc.

Question 5.
Why did the foreigners first establish the modern towns in India?
Answer:
Foreigners first developed trading ports to get their foothold like Surat, Daman, Puducherry, Goa.

Question 6.
What percentage of people in India live in urban centers?
Answer:
31.16% people live in urban centers in India.

Question 7.
How is level of urbanization measured?
Answer:
Level of urbanization is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population.

Question 8.
How many million plus cities are there in India? Name the largest and the smallest one.
Answer:
As per 2011 census, there are 53 million plus cities/ urban agglomerations in India. The largest million plus city in India is Mumbai and the smallest is Kota.

Question 9.
What can be the size of human settlement?
Answer:
The size of settlement ranges from a hamlet in rural areas to metropolitan cities.

Question 10.
Classify the human settlements on the basis of economic activities.
Answer:
On the basis of economic activities, human settlements are of two types:

• Rural Settlement
• Urban Settlement

Question 11.
Define urban settlements.
Answer:
Settlements are generally compact and longer in size with the main population engaged in non-agricultural, economic and administrative functions.

Question 12.
Name different types of rural settlements.
Answer:
Types of rural settlements:

• Clustered, agglomerated or nucleated,
• Semi-clustered or fragmented,
• Hamleted, and
• Dispersed or isolated.

Question 13.
What are different categories of Indian towns on the basis of history?
Answer:
On the basis of history, Indian towns have been categorized into:

• Ancient Towns
• Medieval Towns
• Modern Towns

Question 14.
Which towns have developed in India after independence?
Answer:
Modern towns have developed in India after independence. The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. They first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Puducherry, Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta).

Question 15.
Name the ancient towns of India.
Answer:
Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai, etc. are some of the examples of the ancient towns of India.

Question 16.
Name those towns which have become mega cities.
Answer:
Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Bangalore and Hyderabad are mega cities in the country.

Question 17.
Name the biggest urban agglomeration of India.
Answer:
Greater Mumbai is the largest urban agglomeration with 16.4 million people.

Question 18.
On the basis of census, in how many categories have towns of India been divided?
Answer:
On the basis of census, towns have been classified into six categories.

Question 19.
What is a metropolitan city?
Answer:
It is a city with population of 1 million to 5 million.

Question 20.
Are towns static in their functions?
Answer:
Cities are not static in their functions and functions change due to their dynamic nature. Even specialized cities, as they grow in metros become multi functional where industries business, administration, transport become important.

Question 21.
Name a few religious and cultural towns of India.
Answer:
Varanasi, Mathura, Amritsar, Madurai, Puri, Ajmer, Pushkar, Tirupati, Kurukshetra, Haridwar, Ujjain, etc. are some of the religious and cultural towns.

Question 22.
Name some of the tourist towns of India.
Answer:
Nainital, Mussoorie, Shimla, Pachmarhi, Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Udagamandalam (Ooty), Mount Abu are some of the tourist towns.

Question 23.
What are garrisson cantonment towns?
Answer:
The towns which emerge by defence functions of the government are called garrisson cantonment towns. For example, Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two characteristics of urban settlement in India. How are cities connected to rural centres?
Answer:
Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size and they are engaged in variety of non agricultural, economic and administrative functions. Cities are functionally linked to rural areas around them. Exchange of goods and services with food and raw materials is either performed directly or sometimes through market towns and cities.

Question 2.
Write a note on evolution of towns in India.
Answer:
On the basis of their evolution in different periods, Indian towns may be classified as:

• Ancient towns
• Medieval towns and
• Modern towns.

Ancient Towns: There are number of towns in India having historical background spanning over 2000 years. Most of them developed as religious and cultural centres. Varanasi is one of the important towns among these. Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai are some other examples of ancient towns in the country.

Medieval Towns: About 100 of the existing towns have their roots in the medieval period and they developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms. These are fort towns which came up on the ruins of ancient towns. Important among them are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.

Modern Towns: The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. Starting their foothold on coastal locations, they first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Pondicherry, etc. Later they developed principle nodes of Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta). They established administrative centres, hilltowns as summer resorts, and added military areas to them. After independence, a large number of towns were developed as administrative headquarters, example; Chandigarh, Bhubaneswar, Gandhinagar, Dispur, etc. and industrial centres such as Durgapur, Bhilai, Sindri, Barauni. Some old towns also developed as satellite towns around metropolitan cities such as Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurgaon around Delhi.

Question 3.
What factors are responsible for different types of rural settlements in India?
Answer:
There are many factors and conditions responsible for different types of rural settlements in India. They are:

• Physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water,
• Cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion.
• Security factors – defence against thefts and robberies.

Question 4.
Where do we find clustered settlements in India? Explain their features.
Answer:
Clustered settlements are found in fertile alluvial plains and the north-eastern states. People live in compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.
Their features:

•  It is an area of compact or closely built up area of houses
• The general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms and pastures.
• The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognisable pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc.

Question 5.
Write a few features of rural settlements.
Answer:
Features of rural settlements:

• Rural settlements are most closely and directly related to land.
• They are dominated by primary activities such as agriculture, animal husbandry, fishing, etc.
• The settlements size is relatively small and rate of growth and expansion is low.
• Usually rural settlements are located near water bodies such as rivers, lakes, and springs where water can be easily obtained.
• People living in rural areas have strong relationship among themselves because they are similar in their culture, social and religious issues.
• The houses in rural areas are similar in their construction pattern which is according to the climatic conditions.

Question 6.
Write a few features of urban settlements.
Ans. Features of urban settlements:

• Urban settlements have a close relationship with technology and man made things.
• Most of the people are engaged in secondary, tertiary and quaternary activities in these areas.
• The settlement size is large and there is high density of population.
• Urban settlements are located near industrial areas, ports, administrative centers, etc.
• In order to take care of urban areas, Municipality, Cantonment Board or Notified Area Council are formed. Similarly, in Latin American countries, such as Brazil and Bolivia, any administrative centre is considered urban irrespective of its population size.

Question 7.
Explain the classification of urban settlement on the basis of population size.
Answer:
Census of India classifies urban centres in the six following classes.

All classes	Population size
I	1,00,000 and more
II	50,000-99,999
III	20,000-49,999
IV	10,000-19,999
V	5,000-9,999
VI	Less than 5,000

 

• Population of more than one lakh people is called a city or class I town.
• Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are mega cities.
• 61% of population living in urban areas lives in class I town.
• Out of 423 cities, 35 urban agglomerations are metros, 6 of them are mega cities with one fifth (21.01%) of population.

Question 8.
What do you mean by urbanization and levels of urbanization in India?
Answer:
Urbanization refers to development of villages and rural areas into towns with high standard of living and civic amenities. The level of urbanization is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to the total population. The level of urbanization in India in 2001 was 28%.

Question 9.
What factors are responsible for different types of human settlements?
Answer:
There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India. These include:

• Physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water,
• Cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion.
• Security factors – defence against thefts and robberies.

Question 10.
When did maximum urban growth take place in India? What were its causes?
Answer:
With increasing investment in rural areas, a large number of medium and small towns have developed all over the country. The level of urbanization in India in 2001 was 28 per cent, which is quite low in comparison to developed countries. Total urban population has increased eleven fold during twentieth century. Enlargement of urban centers and emergence of new towns have played a significant role in the growth of urban population and urbanization in the country.

Question 11.
What do you mean by urban agglomeration?
Answer:
An urban agglomeration may consist of any one of the following three combinations:

• A town and its adjoining urban outgrowths,
• Two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and
• A city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread.

Question 12.
What is the total urban population of India? In which type of towns does this population live?
Answer:
As per 2011 census urban population in India is 377,000,000. 60% of urban population in India lives in class I towns.

Question 13.
Name different types of towns on the basis of their functions.
Answer:
On the basis of their functions different types of towns are as follows:

• Administrative towns and cities
• Mining towns
• Industrial towns
• Garrisson cantonment towns
• Transport cities
• Educational towns
• Commercial towns
• Religious and cultural towns
• Tourist towns

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Human settlement. Briefly describe the rural settlement types in India.
Answer:
Cluster of dwellings of any type or size where human beings live is called human settlement. It involves grouping of people and apportioning of territory as a resource base. Settlements vary in size and type. Types of settlements are determined by the extent of built up area, inter house distance. There are four types of rural settlements in India:

The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of houses. Here, the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built-up area and streets form recognizable pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc. These are found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. People live in compact village for security or region of central India and in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.

Semi-Clustered Settlements: Semi- clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. Sometimes one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village. Generally, the land-owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village.

Hamleted Settlements: Sometimes settlement is divided into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name motivated by social and ethnic factors. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country.

Dispersed Settlements: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme dispersion of settlement is caused by fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.

Question 2.
How many classes of town are there in India based on population size? Give the size as well. Which of them has the highest percentage of people?
Answer:
6 classes of towns.
Class I — More than 1 lakh population
Class II — 50,000 – 99999
Class III — 20,000 – 49999
Class IV — 10,000 – 19999
Class V — 5000 – 9999
Class VI — Less than
Class I towns have highest percentage.

Question 3.
Write a note on functional classification of towns.
Answer:
Some towns and cities specialize in certain functions and they are known for some specific activities, products or services. Indian cities and towns can be broadly classified as follows:

Administrative towns and cities: Towns supporting administrative headquarters of higher order are administrative towns, such as Chandigarh ,New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong, Guwahati, Imphal, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Chennai, etc.

Industrial towns: Industries constitute prime motive force of these cities such as Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Jamshedpur, Hugli, Bhilai, etc.

Transport Cities: They may be ports primarily engaged in export and import activities such as Kandla, Kochchi, Kozhikode, Vishakhapatnam, etc. or hubs of inland transport such as Agra, Dhulia, Mughal Sarai, Itarsi, Katni, etc.

Commercial towns: Towns and cities specialising in trade and commerce are kept in this class. Kolkata, Saharanpur, Satna, etc. are some examples.

Mining towns: These towns have developed in mineral rich areas such as Raniganj, Jharia, Digboi, Ankaleshwar, Singrauli, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Data Based Questions

Question 1.
Study table 4.1 and write a note on Trends of urbanization in India during 1901-2001.

Year	Total number of towns/UA’s	Urban Population (in Thousands)	% share of Total population	Decadal growth rate (%)
1901	1,827	25,851.9	10.84	—
1911	1,815	25,941.6	10.29	0.35
1921	1,949	28,086.2	11.18	8.27
1931	2,072	33,456.0	11.99	19.12
1941	2,250	44,153.3	13.86	31.97
1951	2,843	62,443.7	17.29	41.42
1961	2,365	78,936.6	17.97	26.41
1971	2,590	1,09,114	19.91	38.23
1981	3,378	1,59,463	23.34	46.14
1991	4,689	2,17,611	25.71	36.47
2001	5,161	2,85,355	27.78	31.13
2011	7,935	3,77,000	31.16	31.08

Answer:
In 1901 11% of India’s population was living in urban areas, while in 2011 it increased to 31%. Decennial growth rate was highest in decade of 1971 and 1981 at 46%. The growth rate has now come down to 31%. The rate of urbanization came down during the decade of 1951 to 1961 and again started rising and the decennial growth was highest in 1971-1981 decade, possibly due to development in agriculture and industrial sector and better economic conditions of our country.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Differentiates

Question 1.
Differentiate between urban and rural settlements in India.
Answer:

Urban Settlements	Rural Settlements
(i) These settlements are larger. Some of these cities occupy a large area. They have thousand or lakhs of houses.	(i) They are small settlements and have smaller number of houses. Population resides in villages.
(ii) The occupational structure is complex and varied in nature. The work is done in built up area. People are engaged in industries, administration, trade and commerce and other activities.	(ii) The occupational structure is very simple. They are directly dependant on nature. Farming, fishing, lumbering Eire main occupations. Work is done in the field.
(iii) People are dependent on the rural areas for food and raw materials for the industries.	(iii) Rural people are dependent on the urban area for the finished products services.
(iv) Urban settlements have permanent structure of buildings. The material is bought from distant places. The settlements are mostly compact and to a great extent planned one.	(iv) Rural settlements do not have sufficient or adequate facilities for building their houses. They use local material and settlements are dispersed. The houses are not planned. The water supply and elevated land free from floods are main locational factors
(v) Urban settlements have more facilities such as roads, electricity, telephone, hospitals, etc.	(v) Rural settlements do not have modern amenities.
(vi) The houses are built according to the choice and liking of the individual with no definite layout plan.	(vi) The houses are built with a courtyard, a store room, enclosures for animals and roofs are made according to the weather conditions.
(vii) The problem of pollution, sewage and slums are growing as cities are growing. City life is fast and self centered.	(vii) The rural areas have simple living and are free from city bound problems.

Question 2.
Differentiate between semi-clustered and dispersed settlements.
Answer:

Basis	Semi-clustered settlements	Dispersed settlements
Formation	It is formed due to clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. This pattern results from segregation or fragmentation of a large compact area.	It appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms and pastures on the slopes.
Cause for their development	One or more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village whereas the land owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village and mental workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.	Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.
Areas	Such settlements are widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan.	Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttaranchal, H.P and Kerala have this type of settlement.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
“Compact or clustered village is a universal feature in the northern plains”. Give reasons.
Answer:
Compact or clustered village is a universal feature in the northern plains due to following reasons:

• Level and fertile land
• More labour force
• Abundant supply of water for various activities
• Social security
• Better transportation facilities
• Major portion of the population is landless; hence they are bound to live together.

Question 2.
Mention how will you judge whether a settlement to be classified as a town according to 2001 census.
Answer:
Given below are the criterion that I will use to judge whether a given settlement is to be classified as a town or not:

• Population size should be 5000 or more.
• Density of population should be more than 400 persons/sq. km
• More than 75% of male workers should be engaged in non-agricultural activities.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols:
Cities with more than 10 million population.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Name the most developed religious and cultural centre of the ancient period in India. (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Varanasi and Ayodhya.

Question 2.
Name the largest metropolitan city of Uttar Pradesh. Write its population according to Census 2001. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Kanpur, population 2.69 million.

Question 3.
Name the largest metropolitan city of Madhya Pradesh. What was its population according to the census 2001? (AJ. 2009)
Answer:
Indore, population 1.64 million.

Question 4.
Which class of cities has the highest percentage of urban population in India? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Cities of class-I over 1,00,000 .population.

Question 5.
What is the population size of class II cities in India? (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
50,000 – 99,999.

Question 6.
Which class of cities has the largest number of towns and cities in India? (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Class-I cities has the largest number of towns and cities in India.

Question 7.
Give any two examples of Ancient towns of India. (CBSE 2008, 2014)
Answer:
Pataliputra and Varanasi.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of human settlement. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings where people live more or less permanently.

Question 9.
Name the metropolitan city of Karnataka State as per 2001 census. (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
Bengaluru.

Question 10.
Name the metropolitan city of Bihar. (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
Patna.

Question 11.
Name any two ‘Garrisson Contonment’ cities of India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Ambala and Jalandhar.

Question 12.
Name any two famous transport cities of India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Kandla and Kochi.

Question 13.
Name any two famous administrative cities of India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Chandigarh and New Delhi.

Question 14.
Give any two examples of mining towns in India. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Two examples of mining towns in India are:

1. Raniganj and
2. Jharia.

Question 15.
Give the meaning of ‘clustered rural settlement’ of India. (A.I. 2013)
Answer:
The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of houses. In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built up area and its intervening streets present some recognisable pattern or geometric shape. Q16. Give one example of ancient historical town of Bihar. (A.I. 2014)
Answer:
Pataliputra (Patna)

Question 16.
Distinguish between towns and villages on the basis of occupation. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The basic difference between towns and villages is that in towns the main occupation of the people is related to secondary and tertiary sectors, while in the villages most of the people are engaged in primary occupations such as agriculture, fishing, lumbering, mining, animal husbandry etc.

Question 17.
What two factors mostly helped in the development of ancient towns in India? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:

• Religion
• Culture

Question 18.
How is the level of urbanization measured in India? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The level of urbanization is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population.

Question 19.
Name any two garrison (cantonment towns of India. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Garrison Town – Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur (Any two)

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain any three characteristics of dispersed settlements found in India. (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Three characteristics of dispersed settlement in India Eire:

1. It appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles.
2. It also appears on small bills with farms or pasture on the slopes.
3. Its extreme dispersion is caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.

Question 2.
Divide the population of the world into two groups on basis of residence. How do they differ from each other? Explain any two points of difference. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Rural
(b) Urban

• Rural and urban lifestyles differ from each other from the point of view of lifestyle and social structure.
• Occupational structure is different. In the rural areas people predominantly are engaged in primary activities.
• Level of development varies vastly especially in the developing countries.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of ‘dispersed settlement’. Explain any two reasons for the development of such settlements in India. (A.I. 2014)
Answer:
Dispersed settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles or on small hills with farms or pastures on slopes.
Reasons for development:

• It develops due to extremely fragmented nature of the terrain.
• These settlements are land resource base

Question 4.
“Many of the modern towns in India were developed during the period of British domination”. Substantiate the statement. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:

• The British had developed a number of the modern towns in India.
• Starting their foothold on coastal locations.
• First of all they developed some trading ports.
• Surat, Daman, Goa, Puducherry (Pondicherry) etc., were developed as trading centres.
• After that they consolidated their hold around three nodes. Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras) and Kolkata (Calcutta).
• They also developed their administrative centres, hill towns as summer resorts.
• They developed new civil administrative and military areas.
• Towns based on modern industries also evolved after 1850 such as Jamshedpur.

Question 5.
Explain any three features of semi- clustered rural settlements of India. (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
Features:

• Semi-clustered settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement.
• Such settlements may also result from fragmentation of a large compact village,
• In this case, one or more sections of the village society is forced to live a little away from the main village

Question 6.
Explain the three basic differences between rural and urban settlements in India. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Differences between Rural and Urban settlements in India:

• Rural settlements derive their life support from land based primary activities while urban settlements depend on processing of raw materials and various services.
• Cities act as nodes of economic growth. They provide goods and services to both urban and rural centres.
• Rural settlements supply food and raw materials while urban areas provide services.
• Both settlements differ in social relationships, attitude and outlook.
  (Any three points of difference to be explained)

Question 7.
Explain any three features of urban settlements in India. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Three features of urban settlements in India;.

• Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size.
• Some towns and cities specialize in certain functions and they are known for some specific activities, products and services.
• People are engaged in non-agricultural activities, economic and administrative functions.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Aerial Photographs

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

Question 1(i).
Which department prepares the weather map of India for each day?
(a) The World Meteorological Organisation
(b) The Indian Meteorological Department
(c) The Survey of India
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) The Indian Meteorological Department

Question 1(ii).
Which two liquids are used in maximum and minimum thermometers?
(a) Mercury and water
(b) Water and alcohol
(c) Mercury and alcohol
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Mercury and alcohol

Question 1(iii).
Lines connecting the places of equal pressure are called
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(a) Isobars

Question 1(iv).
The primary tool for weather forecasting is
(a) Thermometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Maps
(d) Weather charts.
Answer:
(d) Weather charts

Question 1(v).
If there is more humidity in the air, the difference between the readings of a dry bulb and a wet bulb will be
(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Equal
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Less.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What are the basic elements of weather?
Answer:
The weather elements include temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and cloudiness.

Question 2(ii).
What is a weather chart?
Answer:
The data received from various weather observatories are in plenty and detailed. Therefore, they cannot be incorporated in one single chart unless the coding designed to give the economy of expression is used. These are called synoptic weather charts and the codes used are called meteorological symbols.

Question 2(iii).
Which instruments are normally available in Class-I observatory to measure the weather phenomena?
Answer:
The highest category is Class-I. Typical instrumental facility available in a Class-I observatory consists of the following:

• Maximum and minimum thermometers
• Anemometer and wind vane
• Dry and Wet bulb thermometer
• Rain gauge
• Barometer

Observations are taken in these observatories normally at 00,03,06,09, 12,15,18,21 hours (Greenwich Mean Time) around the globe. However, for logistic reasons, some of the observatories take limited number of daily observations upper air observation during daytime only.

Question 2(iv).
What are Isotherms?
Answer:
These are lines connecting places of equal temperature.

Question 2(v).
Which meteorological symbols are used to mark the following on a weather map?
(a) Rain
(b) Mist
(c) Sunshine
(d) Lightning
(e) Overcast Sky
Answer:

3. Answer the following question in not more than 125 words.
Discuss how weather maps and charts are prepared and how they are useful to us.
Answer:
Weather Maps: A weather map is the representation of weather phenomena of the earth or a part of it on a flat surface. It depicts conditions associated with different weather elements such as temperature, rainfall, sunshine and cloudiness, direction and velocity of winds, etc. on a particular day. These observations being taken at fixed hours are transmitted by code to the forecasting stations. The central office keeps a record of the observations, which forms
the basis for making a weather map. The upper air observations which are procured from hill stations, aeroplanes, pilot balloons, etc. are plotted separately.

Indian Meteorological Department is getting the weather maps and charts prepared regularly. Meteorological observatories transmit the data to the Central Observatory at Pune twice a day. Data is also collected on ships plying on the Indian seas. A good progress has been made in the field of weather forecasting and observation with the establishment of weather observatories in Antarctica, the International Indian Ocean Expedition, and the launching of rockets and weather satellites.

Utility:

• Weather maps help us to predict weather.
• Weather forecasting helps farmers, fishermen, soldiers, navigators and pilots in many ways.
• Disaster management is not possible without weather maps and charts. Weather Charts: The data received from various weather observatories are in plenty and detailed. As such, they cannot be incorporated in one single chart unless the coding designed to give the economy of expression is used. These are called synoptic weather charts and the codes used are called meteorological symbols.
•  Utility:
  • Weather charts provide the primary tools for weather forecasting.
  • They help in locating and identifying different air masses, pressure systems, fronts and areas of precipitation.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following element of weather is measured through dry and wet thermometer?
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Pressure
(d) Wind Velocity.
Answer:
(b) Humidity

Question 2.
Weather charts are shown:
(a) Through Coding
(b) Through Information System
(c) Through Millibar
(d) Through Pressure Instruments.
Answer:
(a) Through coding

Question 3.
Which unit is used for measuring pressure?
(a) Centigrade
(b) Millibar
(c) Millimeter
(d) Centimeter.
Answer:
(b) Millibar

Question 4.
Weather charts do not help to recognize:
(a) Air masses
(b) Pressure systems
(c) Fronts
(d) Fog.
Answer:
(d) Fog

Question 5.
(a) What is the air pressure at sea level under normal condition?
(а) 500 gram per sq centimeter
(b) 800 gram per sq centimeter
(c) 1.03 kg per sq centimeter
(d) 2.06 kg per sq centimeter.
Answer:
(c) 1.03 kg per sq centimeter

Question 6.
Where are Central Observatory of India located?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Pune
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai.
Answer:
(b) Pune

Question 7.
These are lines connecting places of same mean’ daily duration of sunshine. What are these lines called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(d) Isohels

Question 8.
What are lines connecting places of equal amount of rainfall over a given period of time called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(b) Isohyets

Question 9.
What are the lines connecting places of same pressure called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(a) Isobars

Question 10.
What are the lines connecting places of same mean value of cloud cover called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isonephs
(d) Isobits.
Answer:
(c) Isonephs.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the word weather.
Answer:
Weather denotes the atmospheric conditions of weather elements at a particular place and time.

Question 2.
What are basic elements of weather?
Answer:
The weather elements include temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and cloudiness.

Question 3.
How is relative humidity calculated?
Answer:
In simple words, we can say that relative humidity is expressed in ratio or percentage of total moist absorbing capacity of air.
It is calculated by using following formula:

For example, if humidity at a place is 5 gm while it has the capacity of absorbing 10 gm humidity at that temperature. Then we can say that relative humidity is 50%.

Question 4.
What are weather maps?
Answer:
A weather map is the representation of weather phenomena of the earth or a part of it on a flat surface. It depicts conditions associated with different weather elements such as temperature, rainfall, sunshine and cloudiness, direction and velocity of winds, etc. on a particular day.

Question 5.
What is the utility of weather charts?
Answer:
Weather charts provide the primary tools for weather forecasting. They help in locating and identifying different air ‘ masses, pressure systems, fronts and areas of precipitation.

Question 6.
When and why was first weather map drawn?
Answer:
First of all need for weather map was felt by boatmen. N 1688, Admond Hally drew first weather map for 30° North and 30° South latitude.

Question 7.
What are three levels for recording meteorological observations worldwide?
Answer:
Globally, meteorological observations are recorded at three levels, viz. surface observatories, upper air observatories and space-based observation platforms. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO), a specialised agency of the United Nations, coordinates these observations.

Question 8.
What is aneroid barometer?
Answer:
Aneroid barometer gets its name from the Greek word, aneros in which ‘a’ means ‘not’, neros means moisture, hence aneroid means without liquid. It is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air.

Question 9.
Explain about rain gauge.
Answer:
The amount of rainfall is measured with the help of a rain gauge. The rain gauge consists of a metal cylinder on which a circular funnel is fitted. The diameter of the funnel’s rim is normally 20 cm. The rain drops are collected and measured in a measuring glass. Normally, rainfall is measured in the units of millimetres or centimetres. Snow is also measured in a similar manner by turning it into liquid form.

Question 10.
On what elements of weather does INS AT provide observations?
Answer:
The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) provides valuable observations of temperature, cloud cover, wind and associated weather phenomena.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is weather forecasting useful for different groups?
Answer:
Weather forecasting is very important for all groups:

• Weather forecasts help in taking safety measures in advance in case of the likelihood of bad weather.
• It reduces the likely loss from natural calamities. Had tsunami been predicted in advance, the loss that happened could be minimized to a great extent.
• Predicting weather a few days in advance may prove very useful to farmers and to the crew of ships, pilots, fishermen, defence personnel, etc.

Question 2.
Explain in short about Wind Vane.
Answer:
Purpose: Wind vane is a device used to measure the direction of the wind. Structure: The wind vane is a light-weight revolving plate with an arrowhead on one end and two metal plates attached to the other end at the same angle. This revolving plate is mounted on a rod in such a manner that it is free to rotate on a horizontal plane. It responds even to a slight blow of wind.
Important Aspect: The arrow always points towards the direction from which the wind blows.

Question 3.
Explain in short about Anemometer.
Answer: An anemometer is an instrument that measures wind speed and wind pressure. Anemometers are important tools for meteorologists, who study weather patterns. They are also important to the work of physicists, who study the way air moves. The most common type of anemometer has three or four cups attached to horizontal arms. The arms are attached to a vertical rod. As the wind blows, the cups rotate, making the rod spin. The stronger the wind blows, the faster the rod spins. The anemometer counts the number of rotations, or turns, which is used to calculate wind speed. Because wind speeds are not consistent—there are gusts and lulls-wind speed is usually averaged over a short period of time.

A similar type of anemometer counts the revolutions made by windmill-style blades. The rod of windmill anemometers rotates horizontally. Other anemometers calculate wind speed in different ways. A hot-wire anemometer takes advantage of the fact that air cools a heated object when it flows over it.

Question 4.
How do Weather observatories work in India?
Answer:
Each day weather maps are prepared for that day by the Meteorological Department from the data obtained from observations made at various weather stations across the world. In India, weather-related information is collected and published under the auspices of the Indian Meteorological Department, New Delhi, which is also responsible for weather forecasting.

The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in 1875, with its headquarters at Calcutta. The IMD headquarters are presently located at New Delhi.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Stevenson Screen.
Answer:
The Stevenson screen is designed to protect thermometers from precipitation and direct sunlight while allowing air to circulate freely around them. Formation: It is made from wood with louvered sides to allow free and even flow of air. It is painted white to reflect radiation. It stands on four legs and is about 3 feet 6 inches above the level of the ground. The legs must be sufficiently rigid and be buried sufficiently in the ground to prevent shaking.

The front panel is hinged at the bottom to form a door, which allows for maintenance and reading of the thermometers. The door of Stevenson screen is always towards the north in the northern hemisphere and towards the south in the southern hemisphere because direct sunrays also affect mercury.

Objective: The purpose of the Stevenson screen is to create a uniform temperature enclosure that closely represents the same temperature as the air outside.

Question 6.
What is aneroid barometer? How does it work?
Answer:
Aneroid barometer gets its name from the Greek word, aneros in which ‘a’ means ‘not’, ‘neros’ means ‘moisture’, hence aneroid means without liquid. It is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air.

It has a thin flexible lid, which is sensitive to changes of pressure. As the pressure increases, the lid is pressed inward, and this, in turn, moves a system of levers connected to a pointer, which moves clockwise over the graduated dial and gives higher reading. When the pressure decreases, the lid is pushed outward and the pointer moves counter clockwise, indicating lower pressure. Barograph works on the principle of aneroid barometer.

There are a number of vacuum boxes placed one above the other so that the displacement is large. A system of levers magnifies this movement which is recorded by a pen on a paper attached to a rotating drum. The readings of a barograph are not always accurate, and therefore, they are standardised by comparing them with a mercury barometer reading.

Question 7.
Explain about surface observatory in detail.
Answer:
A typical surface observatory has instruments for measuring and recording weather elements like temperature (maximum and minimum), air pressure,humidity, clouds, wind and rainfall. Information: Specialised observatories record elements like radiation, ozone atmospheric trace gases, pollution and atmospheric electricity. These observations are taken all over the globe at fixed times of the day as decided by the WMO and the use of instruments are made conforming to international standards, thus making observations globally compatible.

Different types of surface observatories in India: In India, meteorological observations are normally classified into five categories depending upon their instruments and the number of daily observations taken. The highest category is Class-I. Typical instrumental facility available in a Class-I observatory consists of the following: Maximum and minimum thermometers, Anemometer, and wind vane, Dry and Wet bulb thermometer, Rain gauge and Barometer.

Question 8.
Differentiate between:

(i) Wet bulb and dry bulb,
Answer:
The dry bulb and wet bulb thermometers are two identical thermometers fixed to a wooden frame. But they are different in following way:

Dry Bulb Thermometer	Wet Bulb Thermometer
It is used to measure lowest humidity	It is used to measure highest humidity.
The bulb of the dry bulb thermometer is kept uncovered and is exposed to the air	The bulb of the wet bulb thermometer is wrapped up with a piece of wet muslin, which is kept continuously moist by dipping a strand of it into a small vessel of distilled water.
Its temperature remains high.	The evaporation from the wet bulb lowers its temperature.

(ii) Aneroid Barometer and Mercury Barometer.
Answer:

Aneroid Barometer	Mercury Barometer
Aneroid barometer gets its name from the Greek word, aneros in which ‘a’ means ‘not’, ‘neros’ means ‘moisture’, hence aneroid means without liquid. It is a compact and portable instrument.	Mercury barometer is an accurate instrument and is used as a standard. In it the atmospheric pressure of any place is balanced against the weight of a column of mercury in an inverted glass tube.
It is filled with alcohol	It is filled with mercury
It is used to measure lowest temperature.	It is used to measure highest temperature.

(iii) Centigrade and the Fahrenheit.
Answer:
Both are units of measuring temperature but they have some differences.

Centigrade	Fahrenheit
On the Centigrade thermometer, the temperature of melting ice is marked 0°C and that of boiling water as 100°C, and the interval between the two is divided into 100 equal parts.	On the Fahrenheit thermometer, the freezing and boiling points of water are graduated as 32°F and 212°F respectively.
Centigrade = (Fahrenheit -32)	Fahrenheit= Centigrade ×\(\frac { 9 }{ 5 }\) +32

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is information about weather and related facts collected organized and dispensed in India?
Answer: In India, weather-related information is collected and published under the auspices of the Indian Meteorological Department, New Delhi, which is also responsible for weather forecasting.

A typical surface observatory has instruments for measuring and recording weather elements like temperature (maximum and minimum), air pressure, humidity, clouds, wind and rainfall. Specialised observatories also record elements like radiation, ozone atmospheric trace gases, pollution and atmospheric electricity. These observations are taken all over the globe at fixed times of the day as decided by the WMO and the use of instruments are made conforming to international standards, thus making observations globally compatible. In India, meteorological observations are normally classified into five categories depending upon their instruments and the number of daily observations taken. The highest category is Class-I.

Typical instrumental facility available in a Class-I observatory consists of the following:

• Maximum and minimum thermometers
• Anemometer and wind vane
• Dry and Wet bulb thermometer
• Rain gauge
• Barometer

Observations are taken in these observatories normally at 00,03,06,09, 12,15,18,21 hours (Greenwich Mean Time) around the globe. However, for logistic reasons, some of the observatories take limited number of daily observations upper air observation during daytime only.

Weather satellites make comprehensive and large-scale observations of different meteorological elements at the ground level as well in the upper layers of the atmosphere. The geo-stationary satellites provide space-based observations about weather conditions. The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) provides valuable observations of temperature, cloud cover, wind and associated weather phenomena.

Question 2.
Explain the working of a barometer.
Answer:
The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer. The unit of measurement is in the millibar. The most commonly used barometers are the mercury barometer, aneroid barometer and barographs. All the three work differently. Their working is explained below briefly:

1. Mercury barometer: It is an accurate instrument and is used as a standard. In it the atmospheric pressure of any place is balanced against the weight of a column of mercury in an inverted glass tube.

2.Aneroid barometer: It is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air. It has a thin flexible lid, which is sensitive to changes of pressure. As the pressure increases, the lid is pressed inward, and this, in turn, moves a system of levers connected to a pointer, which moves clockwise over the graduated dial and gives higher reading. When the pressure decreases, the lid is pushed outward and the pointer moves counter clockwise, indicating lower pressure.

3. Barograph: It works on the principle of aneroid barometer. There are a number of vacuum boxes placed one above the other so that the displacement is large. A system of levers magnifies this movement which is recorded by a pen on a paper attached to a rotating drum. The readings of a barograph are not
always accurate, and therefore, they are standardised by comparing them with a mercury barometer reading.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Safe place for a thermometer
(ii) Indian Daily Weather report
Answer:
(i) Safe place for thermometer: It is not safe to keep a thermometer in sunlight. We should also not keep it in airtight surroundings. The Stevenson screen is designed to protect thermometers from precipitation and direct sunlight while allowing air to circulate freely around them. It is made from wood with louvered sides to allow free and even flow of air. It is painted white to reflect radiation. The purpose of the Stevenson screen is to create a uniform temperature enclosure that closely represents the same temperature as the air outside.

It stands on four legs and is about 3 feet 6 inches above the level of the ground. The legs must be sufficiently rigid and be buried sufficiently in the ground to prevent shaking. The front panel is hinged at the bottom to form a door, which allows for maintenance and reading of the thermometers. The door of Stevenson screen is always towards the north in the northern hemisphere and towards the south in the southern hemisphere because direct sunrays also affect mercury.

(ii) Indian Daily Weather Report: IMD became a member of the World Meteorological Organization after independence on 27 April 1949. The agency has gained in prominence due to the significance of the monsoon rains on Indian agriculture. It plays a vital role in preparing the annual monsoon forecast, as well as in tracking the progress of the monsoon across India every season.

IMD undertakes observations, communications, forecasting and weather services. In collaboration with the Indian Space Research Organisation, the IMD also uses the IRS series and the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) for weather monitoring of the Indian subcontinent. IMD was the first weather bureau of a developing country to develop and maintain its own satellite system. IMD is one of the 6 worldwide Regional Specialized Meteorological Centers of the Tropical Cyclone Programme of the World Weather Watch of the World Meteorological Organization. It is regional nodal agency for forecasting, naming and disseminating warnings about tropical cyclone in the Indian Ocean north of the Equator.

Question 4.
Explain the history of weather forecasting in India.
Answer:
In 1686, Edmond Halley published his treatise on the Indian summer monsoon, which he attributed to a seasonal reversal of winds due to the differential heating of the Asian land mass and the Indian Ocean. The first meteorological observatories were established in India by the British East India Company. These included the Calcutta Observatory in 1785, the Madras Observatory in 1796 and the Colaba Observatory in 1826. Several other observatories were established in India during the first half of the 19th century by various provincial governments.

After a tropical cyclone hit Calcutta in 1864, and the subsequent famines in 1866 and 1871 due to the failure of the monsoons, it was decided to organise the collection and analysis of meteorological observations under one roof.
As a result, the Indian Meteorology Department was established in 1875. Henry Francis Blanford was appointed the first Meteorological Reporter of the IMD. In May 1889,Sir John Eliot was appointed the first Director General of Observatories in the erstwhile capital, Calcutta. The IMD headquarters were later shifted to Shimla in 1905, then to Pune in 1928 and finally to New Delhi in 1944.

Question 5.
Explain the instruments used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
A barometer is a scientific instrument used in meteorology to measure atmospheric pressure. A simple barometer consists of a long glass tube (closed at one end, open at the other) filled with mercury and turned upside down into a container of mercury. The barometer works by balancing the mercury in the glass tube against the outside air pressure, just like a set of scales. As air pressure increases—that is, as the air becomes heavier—it pushes more of the mercury up into the tube. As air pressure decreases, more of the mercury drains from the tube. So the level of mercury in the tube provides a precise measure of air pressure.

Mercury barometer is . an accurate instrument and is used as a standard. In it the atmospheric pressure of any place is balanced against the weight of a column of mercury in an inverted glass tube. Aneroid barometer is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air. It has a thin flexible lid, which is sensitive to changes of pressure. As the pressure increases, the lid is pressed inward, and this, in turn, moves a system of levers connected to a pointer, which moves clockwise over the graduated dial and gives higher reading.

When the pressure decreases, the lid is pushed outward and the pointer moves counterclockwise, indicating lower pressure. Barograph works on the principle of aneroid barometer. There are a number of vacuum boxes placed one above the other so that the displacement is large. A system of levers magnifies this movement which is recorded by a pen on a paper attached to a rotating drum. The readings of a barograph are not always accurate, and therefore, they are standardised by comparing them with a mercury barometer reading.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Viva Questions

Question 1.
When was IMD established?
Answer:
The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in 1875.

Question 2.
When was the headquarter of IMD established? Where is it located now?
Answer:
In 1875, it was established with its headquarters at Calcutta. The IMD headquarters are presently located at New Delhi.

Question 3.
What is the air pressure at sea level under normal condition?
Answer: At the sea level, under normal conditions, the pressure of air is 1.03 kg per square centimetre.

Question 4.
Name the instrument used to measure:
(a) Air temperature.
(b) Direction of the wind.
(c) Atmospheric pressure
(d) Amount of rainfall
Answer:
(a) Thermometer
(b) wind vane
(c) Barometer
(d) Rain Gauge

Question 5.
Name the lines connecting:
(a) Places of equal air pressure.
(b) Places of equal temperature
(c) Places of equal amount of rainfall
(d) Places having the same mean values of temperature, rainfall, pressure, sunshine, clouds, etc.
(e) Places of same mean daily duration of sunshine.
(f) Places of same mean value of cloud cover.
Answer:
(a) Isobar
(b) Isotherms
(c) Isohyets
(d) Isopleth
(e) Isohels
(f) Isonephs

Map Skills

Study Figures 1 and 2 and answers the following questions.

(a) Which seasons are shown in these maps?
Answer:
These maps are showing winter season and monsoon season.

(b) What is the value of the highest isobar in Figure 1 and through which part of the country does it pass?
Answer:
The value of highest isobar in figure 1 is 1010 millibar and it is passing through south¬west part of the country.

(c) What are the values of the highest and the lowest isobars in Figure 2 and where are they located?
Answer:
The value of highest isobar in figure 2 is 1020 millibar and lowest isobar is 1013 millibar. Highest values are located in Lakshadweep and coastal areas of Kerala and lowest is located in Pakistan.

(d) What are the patterns of temperature distribution in both the maps?
Answer:
In figure 1, the temperature of July in South India is 20° and temperature of North India is between 20° to 30°. In figure 2 the temperature of January in North India is between 10° to 15° and temperature of South India is between 20° to 25°.

(e) In which parts do you see the highest and the lowest mean temperature in Figure 1?
Answer:
In figure 1, we can see highest mean temperature in North India and lowest mean temperature in South India.

(f) What relationship do you see between the distribution of temperature and pressure in both the maps?
Answer:
As temperature increases, pressure decreases and vice

Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts Notes

• Weather denotes the atmospheric conditions of weather elements at a particular place and time. The weather elements include temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and cloudiness.
• Each day weather maps are prepared for that day by the Meteorological Department from the data obtained from observations made at various weather stations across the world.
• The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in 1875, with its headquarters at Calcutta. The IMD headquarters are presently located at New Delhi.
• Weather forecast helps us to take preventive action for bad weather in advance. Some time
  ago weather forecasting was used at a large scale by farmers, fishers, boatmen, pilot, ship navigators, soldiers, etc.

The wind vane is a lightweight revolving plate with an arrowhead on one end and two metal plates attached to the other end at the same angle. This revolving plate is mounted on a rod in such a manner that it is free to rotate on a horizontal plane. It responds even to a slight blow of wind. The arrow always points towards the direction from which the wind blows.

The amount of rainfall is measured with the help of a rain gauge. The rain gauge consists of a metal cylinder on which a circular funnel is fitted. The diameter of the funnel’s rim is normally 20 cm. The rain drops are collected and measured in a measuring glass. Normally, rainfall is measured in the units of millimetres or centimetres. Snow is also measured in a similar manner by turning it into liquid form.

Thermometer is used to measure air temperature. Most thermometers are in the form of a narrow closed glass tube with an expanded bulb at one end. The bulb and the lower part of the tube are filled with liquid such as mercury or alcohol. Before the other end is sealed off, the air in the tube is released by heating it. The bulb of the thermometer in contact with the air gets heated or cooled, as the case may be, as a result of which the mercury in the bulb rises or falls. A scale is marked on the glass tube and readings are taken from there.

The two most common scales used in thermometers are Centigrade and the Fahrenheit. On the Centigrade thermometer, the temperature of melting ice is marked 0°C and that of boiling water as 100°C, and the interval between the two is divided into 100 equal parts. On the Fahrenheit thermometer, the freezing and boiling points of water are graduated as 32°F and 212°F respectively.

While the maximum thermometer and minimum thermometer are used to measure the air temperature, the dry bulb and the wet bulb thermometers are used to determine the humidity in the air. A set of these thermometers is kept in the Stevenson Screen.

The maximum thermometer is designed to record the highest temperature during a day. As the temperature increases, the mercury moves up into the tube; however, as the mercury cools, it cannot move downwards because of a constriction in the tube. It must be reset again to bring it down. The minimum thermometer records the lowest reading in a day. In this thermometer, alcohol is used in place of mercury. When the temperature decreases, the metal pin in the tube goes down and strikes at the minimum temperature.

The air around us has weight, and it exerts great pressure on the earth’s surface. At the sea level, under normal conditions, the pressure of air is 1.03 kg per square centimetre. Due to constant movement of air, change in temperature and variation in its vapour content, the weight of the air changes continuously with time and place. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer.

The most commonly used barometers are the mercury barometer, aneroid barometer and barographs. The unit of measurement is in the millibar.
Globally, meteorological observations are recorded at three levels, viz. surface observatories, upper air observatories and space-based observation platforms. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO), a specialised agency of the United Nations, coordinates these observations.

A typical surface observatory has iiistruments for measuring and recording weather elements like temperature (maximum and minimum), air pressure, humidity, clouds, wind and rainfall. Specialised observatories also record elements like radiation, ozone atmospheric trace gases, pollution and atmospheric electricity. These observations are taken all over the globe at fixed times of the day as decided by the WMO and the use of instruments are made conforming to international standards, thus making observations globally compatible.

Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts Important Terms

• Weather: The condition of the atmosphere at a given place and time with respect to atmospheric pressure, temperature, humidity, precipitation, cloudiness and wind is called weather.
• Weather Elements: Pressure, temperature, humidity, precipitation, cloudiness and wind are known as weather elements.
• Weather Forecast: It is weather prediction with a reasonable amount of certainty about the conditions of weather that would prevail in the coming 12 to 48 hours in a certain area.
• Thermometer: Thermometer is used to measure air temperature.
• Wind Vane: Wind vane is a device used to measure the direction of the wind.
• Barometer: The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer.
• Rain Gauge: The amount of rainfall is measured with the help of a rain gauge.
• Weather Maps: A weather map is the representation of weather phenomena of the earth or a part of it on a flat surface. It depicts conditions associated with different weather elements such as temperature, rainfall, sunshine and cloudiness, direction and velocity of winds, etc. on a particular day.
• Weather Symbols: These are standard symbols used to convey messages received from all the observatories for plotting on the map. These are standardised by the World Meteorological Organisation and the National Weather Bureaus.
• Isopleth: Isopleth can be interpolated for places having the same mean values of temperature, rainfall, pressure, sunshine, clouds, etc.
• Isobars: These are lines connecting places of equal air pressure.
• Isotherms: These are lines connecting places of equal temperature.
• Isohyets: These are lines connecting places of equal amount of rainfall over a given period of time. ‘
• Isohels: These are lines connecting places of same mean daily duration of sunshine.
• Isonephs: Lines connecting places of same mean value of cloud cover.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 7 Introduction to Remote Sensing

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below

Question 1(i).
Remote sensing of objects can be done 1 through various means such as A. remote sensors, B. human eyes and C. photographic system. Which of the following represents the true order of their evolution?
(a) ABC
(b) BCA
(c) CAB
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) BCA

Question 1(ii).
Which of the following regions of r Electromagnetic spectrum is not used in satellite remote sensing?
(a) Microwave region
(b) Infrared region
(c) X-rays
(d) visible region
answer:
(c) X-Rays

Question 1(iii).
Which of the following is not used in visual interpretation technique?
(а) Spatial arrangements of objects
(b) Frequency of tonal change on the image
(c) Location of objects with respect to other objects
(d) Digital image processing
Answer:
(a) Spatial Arrangement of Objects

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
Why is remote sensing a better technique than other traditional methods?
Answer:
Remote sensing is a better technique than traditional methods because:

• It presents the concise picture of a large area.
• It provides real or nearly real pictures on time base line.
• It is less expensive as compared to land survey and we can easily collect information by using it.
• It converts energy received into photographic/digital form of data.
• It is not affected by bad weather and inaccessible land.

Question 2(ii).
Differentiate between IRS and INSAT series of satellites.
Answer:

IRS	INSAT Series of Satellites
It stands for Indian Remote Sensing.	It stands for Indian National Satellite System.
The sensors recording the energy that they receive are placed in a near- polar sun synchronous orbit at an altitude of 700 – 900 km. These satellites are known as remote sensing satellites.	As against these satellites, the weather monitoring and telecommunication satellites are placed in a Geostationary position (the satellite is always positioned over its orbit that synchronises with the direction of the rotation of the earth) and revolves around the earth (coinciding with the direction of the movement of the earth over its axis) at an altitude of nearly 36,000 km (e.g. INSAT series of satellites).
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellite system was commissioned with the launch of IRS-1A, in 1988. With ten satellites in operation, IRS is the largest civilian remote sensing satellite constellation in the world. Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellite system was commissioned with the launch of IRS-1 A, in 1988.	The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system which are placed in Geo-stationary orbits is one of the largest domestic communication satellite systems in Asia-Pacific region. Established in 1983 with commissioning of INSAT-1B, it initiated a major revolution in India’s communications sector and sustained the same later. INSAT space segment consists of 24 satellites out of Which 10 are in service (INSAT-2E, INSAT-3A, INSAT-4B, INSAT-3C, INSAT-3E, KALPANA-1, INSAT-4A, INSAT-4CR, GSAT-8 and GSAT-12).

Question 2(iii).
Describe in brief the functioning of push- broom scanner.
Answer:
The pushbroom scanners consist of a number of detectors which are equivalent to the number obtained by dividing the swath of the sensor by the size of the spatial resolution. In pushbroom scanner, all detectors are linearly arrayed and each detector collects the energy reflected by the ground cell (pixel) dimensions of 20 metres at a nadir’s view.

For example, the swath of High-Resolution Visible Radiometer – 1 (HRVR -1) of the French remote sensing satellite SPOT is 60 km and the spatial resolution is 20 metres. If we divide 60 km x 1000 metres/20 metres, we get a number of 3000 detectors that are deployed in SPOT HRV – 1 sensor.

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words.

Question 3(i).
Describe the operation of a whiskbroom scanner with the help of a diagram. Explain how it is different from push-broom scanner.
Answer:
Whiskbroom Scanners: The whiskbroom scanners are made up of a rotating mirror and a single detector. The mirror is so oriented that when it completes a rotation, the detector sweeps across the field of view between 90° and 120° to obtain images in a large number of narrow spectral bands ranging from visible to middle infrared regions of the spectrum. The total extent of the oscillating sensor is known as the Total Field of View (TFOV) of the scanner. While scanning the entire field, the sensor’s optical head is always placed at a particular dimension called the Instantaneous Field of View (IFOV). Figure given below depicts the scanning mechanism of whiskbroom scanners.

• In whiskbroom scanner, a single mirror is used to reflect light onto a single detector. The mirror moves back and forth to collect measurements from one pixel in the image at a time whereas in pushbroom scanner a line of detectors arranged in perpendicular to flight direction are used. The image is collected one line at a time with all of the pixels in a line measures simultaneously.
• A pushbroom scanner receives stronger signal than whiskbroom scanner because it looks at each pixel area for long.
• Pushbroom scanner is more sensitive than whiskbroom scanner. So it is needed to perfectly calibrate.

Question 3(ii).
Identify and list the changes that can be observed in the vegetation of Himalaya.

Answer:
The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, with change in with the altitude. Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m. After 3000 metre altitude, conical forests are found which have sharp leaves. Important trees in this region are Chid, Fur, Pine, Sprus etc.

The red patches in May image refer to Coniferous vegetation. In November image the additional red patches refer to Deciduous plants and the light red colour is related to the crops.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 7 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The range of the wavelengths in the continuous spectrum such as the green band ranges from 0.5 to 0.6 p and the range of NIR band 0.7 to 1.1 p. What is it called?
(a) Sensor
(b) False Colour Composite
(c) Spectral Band
(d) Electro-Magnetic Spectrum
Answer:
(c) Spectral Band

Question 2.
The ground area covered by an image or a photograph is called:
(a) Band
(b) Digital Image
(c) Scene
(d) Spectrum
Answer:
(c) Scene

Question 3.
The ratio of the radiant energy reflected by a substance to the energy it receives is called:
(a) Reflectance
(b) False Colour Composite
(c) Spectral Band
(d) Electro Magnetic Spectrum
Answer:
(a) Reflectance

Question 4.
When was the term remote sensing used for the first time?
(a) Early 1950s
(b) Early 1960s
(c) Early 1970s
(d) Early 1980s
Answer:
(b) Early 1950s

Question 5.
What is the most important source of remote sensing?
(a) Sun
(b) Generator
(c) Electronic Appliances
(d) Flash Gun
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 6.
What is the mode of collection of images by scanners called?
(a) Sensing
(b) Satellite images
(c) Bit-by-bit.
(d) Electromagnetic images
Answer:
(c) Bit-by-bit

Question 7.
The principle that is utilised in obtaining Multispectral Images:
(а) Dispersion of Light
(б) Rainbow Principle
(c) Prism Principle
(d) Spectral Band
Answer:
(a) Dispersion of light

Question 8.
The continuum of electromagnetic radiation that ranges from short wave high frequency cosmic radiations to long
wavelength low frequency radio waves is called:
(a) Reflectance
(b) False Colour Composite
(c) Spectral Band
(d) Electro Magnetic Spectrum
Answer:
(d) Electro Magnetic Spectrum

Question 9.
A digital image consists of discrete picture elements called:
(a) Photographic Shadow
(b) Pixel
(c) Digital Number
(d) Algorithm
Answer:
(b) Pixel

Question 10.
There is an artificially generated colour image in which blue, green and red colours are assigned to the wavelength regions to which they do not belong in nature. It is called:
(а) Sensor
(b) False Colour Composite
(c) Spectral Band
(d) Electro Magnetic Spectrum
Answer:
(b) False Colour Composite

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is remote sensing?
Answer:
Remote sensing is the science of obtaining information about objects or areas from a distance, typically from aircraft or satellites.

Question 2.
What is a sensor?
Answer:
Any imaging and non-imaging device that receives EMR and converts it into a signal that can be recorded and displayed as photographic or digital image.

Question 3.
What is false colour composite?
Answer:
It refers to an artificially generated colour image in which blue, green and red colours are assigned to the wavelength
regions to which they do not belong in nature. For example, in standard a False Colour Composite blue is assigned to green radiations (0.5 to 0.6 pm), green is assigned to red radiations (0.6 to 0.7 pm) and red is assigned to Near Infrared radiation (0.7 to 0.8 pm).

Question 4.
What is special about photographic sensor?
Answer:
A photographic sensor (camera) records the images of the objects at an instance of exposure.

Question 5.
What do you mean by swath?
Answer:
The motor device which oscillates the scanning mirror through the angular field of view of the sensor and which determines the length of scan lines is called swath.

Question 6.
What are electrical signals?
Answer:
The oscillation of the scanning mirror across the scene directs the received energy to the detectors, where it is converted into electrical signals.

Question 7.
All images are not photographs but all photographs are images. How?
Answer:
An image refers to pictorial representation, regardless of what regions of energy have been used to detect and record it. A photograph refers specifically to images that have been recorded on photographic film. Therefore, all images are not photographs but all photographs are images.

Question 8.
What is temporal resolution?
Answer:
In satellite remote sensing, the sun-synchronous polar orbit enables the collection of images after a pre-determined periodical interval. This interval is referred to as the temporal resolution or the revisit time of the satellite over the same area of the earth surface.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a scanner? How does it work?
Answer:
A scanner is usually made up of a reception system consisting of a mirror and detectors. A scanning sensor constructs the scene by recording a series of scan lines. While doing so, the motor device oscillates the scanning mirror through the angular field of view of the sensor, which determines the length of scan lines and is called swath. It is because of such reasons that the mode of collection of images by scanners is referred bit-by-bit. Each scene is composed of cells that determine the spatial resolution of an image. The oscillation of the scanning mirror across the scene directs the received energy to the detectors, where it is converted into electrical signals. These signals are further converted into numerical values called Digital Number (DN Values) for recording on a magnetic tape.

Question 2.
Explain about different types of sensor resolutions.
Answer:
Remote sensors are characterised by spatial, spectral and radiometric resolutions that enable the extraction of useful information pertaining to different terrain conditions.

1. Spatial Resolution: Spatial resolution of the sensors refers to the capability of the sensor to distinguish two closed spaced object surfaces as two different object surfaces. As a rule, with an increasing resolution the identification of even smaller object surfaces become possible,

2. Spectral Resolution: It refers to the sensing and recording power of the sensor in different bands of EMR (Electromagnetic radiation). Multispectral images are acquired by using a device that disperses the radiation received by the sensor and recording it by deploying detectors sensitive to specific spectral ranges. The principles in obtaining such images is the extension of the dispersion of light in nature resulting in the appearance of the “rainbow”.

3.Radiometric Resolution: It is the capability of the sensor to discriminate between two targets. Higher the radiometric resolution, smaller the radiance differences that can be detected between two targets.

Question 3.
How can we classify the characteristics of an object?
Answer:
We can group the characteristics of the objects into two broad categories, i.e. image characteristics and terrain characteristics.

• Image Characteristics: The image characteristics include tone or colour in which objects appear, their shape, size, pattern, texture and the shadow they cast.
• Terrain Characteristics: Location and the association of different objects with their surrounding objects constitute the terrain characteristics.

Question 4.
Differentiate between:
(i) Photographs and images.
Answer:

Basis	Photograph	Image
Meaning	A photograph refers specifically to images that have been recorded on photographic film.	An image refers to pictorial representation, regardless of what regions of energy have been used to detect and record it.
Scope	All photographs are images. Therefore it is inclusive in images and its scope is narrow.	All images are not photographs. Images can be: digital images and photographic images. Therefore, its scope is wider.

(ii) Whiskbroom Scanners and Pushbroom Scanners.
Answer:
Whiskbroom scanners, also sometimes referred to as spotlight or across track scanners, use a mirror to reflect light onto a single detector. The mirror moves back and forth, to collect measurements from one pixel in the image at a time. It is shown below:

The moving parts make this type of sensor expensive and more likely to wear out.

Pushbroom Scanners:
Pushbroom scanners are also sometimes referred to as along track scanners. It is used a line of detectors arranged perpendicular to the flight direction of the spacecraft. As the spacecraft flies forward, the image is collected one line at a time, with all of the pixels in a line being measured simultaneously. It is shown with the help of following figure. A pushbroom scanner receives a stronger signal than a whiskbroom scanner because it looks at each pixel area for longer. One drawback of pushbroom sensors is that the detectors in the “pushbroom” can have varying sensitivity. If they are not perfectly calibrated, this can result in stripes in the data.

Sensors that use the push broom design include SPOT, IRS, QuickBird, OrbView etc.

(iii) Sun-synchronous (or polar) and geostationary orbits.
Answer:

Basis	Sun-Synchronous	Geostationary Orbits
Location	Satellites in this orbit provide medium to high resolution images of the whole earth which are mostly used for environmental monitoring. They orbit at altitudes of 300 to 1,400 km above earth.	Geostationary orbits are located about 36,000 km above the earth.
Revolution time	With every satellite orbit which takes about 90 min, the earth is rotating a bit further resulting in the fact that the satellite is “watching” different sections of the earth in narrow bands. Days or weeks later, the satellite orbits again above the same section.	At this altitude a satellite needs exactly 24 hours to orbit around the earth, the same time the earth takes to perform a complete revolution around its axis.
Expansion	It is expaided from 81 degree north to 81 degree south latitude.	It is expanded on one third of the globe.
Example	The US LANDSAT series is a well known example of a polar orbiting satellite.	METEOSAT is one example for a geostationary satellite.
Utility	It is important for earth resources	It is important for tele­communication and weather department.

 

(iv) Photographic and non-photographic sensors.
Answer:

Basis	Photographic sensors	Non-photographic Sensors
Meaning	A photographic sensor (camera) records the images of the objects at an instance of exposure.	A non-photographic sensor obtains the images of the objects in bit-by-bit form. These sensors are known as scanners.
Device	It is done through camera	It is done through scanners
Other name	It is also called Analogue sensors	It is also called digital sensors.

(v) Photographic image and digital image
Answer:

Basis	Photographic Image	Digital Image
Meaning	Photographs are acquired in the optical regions of the electromagnetic spectrum, i.e. 0.3 – 0.9 pm.	A digital image consists of discrete picture elements called pixels. Each one of the pixels in an image has an intensity value and an address in two­ dimensional image space.
Colour	Four different types of light sensitive film emulsion bases are used to obtain photographs. These are black and white, colour, black and white infrared and colour infrared.	It does not require any film.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does remote sensing help in the collection of information about the properties of the objects and phenomena of the earth surface?
Answer:
Remote sensing help in the collection of information about the properties of the objects and phenomena of the earth surface:

1. Source of Energy: Sun is the most important source of energy used in remote sensing.

2. Transmission of Energy from the Source to the Surface of the Earth:
The energy that emanates from a source propagates between the source and the object surface in the form of waves of energy at a speed of light (300,000 km per second). Such energy propagation is called Electromagnetic Radiation (EMR).

3. Interaction of Energy with the Earth’s Surface: The propagating energy finally interacts with the objects of the surface of the earth. This leads to absorption, transmission, reflection or emission of energy from the objects.

4. Propagation of Reflected/Emitted Energy through Atmosphere: When energy is reflected from objects of the earth’s surface, it re-enters into the atmosphere.

5. Detection of Reflected/Emitted Energy by the Sensor: The sensors recording the energy that they receive are placed in a near-polar sun-synchronous orbit at an altitude of 700 – 900 km. These satellites are known as remote sensing satellites (e.g. Indian Remote Sensing Series). As against these satellites, the weather monitoring and telecommunication satellites are placed in a Geostationary position (the satellite is always positioned over its orbit that synchronizes with the direction of the rotation of the earth) and revolves around the earth (coinciding with the direction of the movement of the earth over its axis) at an altitude of nearly 36,000 km (e.g. INSAT series of satellites).

6. Conversion of Energy Received into Photographic/Digital Form of Data: The radiations received by the sensor are electronically converted into a digital image. It comprises digital numbers that are arranged in rows and columns. These numbers may also be converted into an analogue (picture) form of data product. The sensor onboard an earth¬orbiting satellite electronically transmits the collected image data to an Earth Receiving Station located in different parts of the world.

7. Extraction of Information Contents from Data Products: After the image data is received at the earth station, it is processed for elimination of errors caused during image data collection. Once the image is corrected, information extraction is carried out from digital images using digital image processing techniques and from analogue form of data products by applying visual interpretation methods.

8. Conversion of Information into Map/Tabular Forms: The interpreted information is finally delineated and converted into different layers of thematic maps. Besides, quantitative measures are also taken to generate tabular data.

Question 2.
Explain about different types of multispectral scanners.
Answer:
In satellite remote sensing, the Multi-Spectral Scanners (MSS) are used as
sensors. These sensors are designed to obtain images of the objects while sweeping across the field of view.
The Multi-Spectral Scanners are divided into the following types:

1. Whiskbroom Scanners
2. Pushbroom Scanners

1. Whiskbroom Scanners: The whiskbroom scanners are made up of a rotating mirror and a single detector. The mirror is so oriented that when it completes a rotation, the detector sweeps across the field of view between 90° and 120° to obtain images in a large number of narrow spectral bands ranging from visible to middle infrared regions of the spectrum. The total extent of the oscillating sensor is known as the Total Field of View (TFOV) of the scanner. While scanning the entire field, the sensor’s optical head is always placed at a particular dimension called the Instantaneous Field of View (IFOV).

2. Pushbroom Scanners: The pushbroom scanners consist of a number of detectors which are equivalent to the number obtained by dividing the swath of the sensor by the size of the spatial resolution. In pushbroom scanner, all detectors are linearly arrayed and each detector collects the energy reflected by the ground cell (pixel) dimensions of 20 metres at a nadir’s view. For example, the swath of High-Resolution Visible Radiometer – 1 (HRVR – 1) of the French remote sensing satellite SPOT is 60 km and the spatial resolution is 20 metres. If we divide 60 km x 1000 metres/20 metres, we get a number of 3000 detectors that are deployed in SPOT HRV – 1 sensor.

Question 3.
Based upon the mechanism used in detecting and recording, in how many categories can we classify the remotely sensed data products?
Answer:
Based upon the mechanism used in detecting and recording, these may be broadly classified into two types:

1. Photographic Images
2. Digital Images

1. Photographic Images: Photographs are acquired in the optical regions of electromagnetic spectrum, i.e. 0.3-0. 9 pm. Four different types of light sensitive film emulsion bases are used to obtain photographs. These are black and white, colour, black and white infrared and colour infrared. However, in aerial photography black and white film is normally used. Photographs may be enlarged to any extent without loosing information contents or the contrast.

2. Digital Images: A digital image consists of discrete picture elements called pixels. Each one of the pixels in an image has an intensity value and an address in two-dimensional image space. A digital number (DN) represents the average intensity value of a pixel. It is dependent upon the electromagnetic energy received by the sensor and the intensity levels used to describe its range. In a digital image, the reproduction of the details pertaining to the images of the objects is affected by the size of the pixel. A smaller size pixel is generally useful in the preservation of the scene details and digital representation. However, zooming of the digital image beyond certain extent produces loss of information and the appearance of pixels only. Using a digital image processing algorithms, the digital numbers representing their intensity level in an image may be displayed.

Question 4.
Explain various elements of visual interpretation.
Answer:
Elements of Visual Interpretation Whether we are conscious of it or not we use the form, size, location of the objects and their relationships with the surrounding objects to identify them in our day-to-day life. These characteristics of objects are termed as elements of visual interpretation.

1. Tone or Colour: All objects receive energy in all regions of spectrum. The interaction of EMR with the object surface leads to the absorption, transmittance and reflection of energy. It is the reflected amount of the energy that is received and recorded by the sensor in tones of grey, or hues of colour in black and white, and colour images respectively. The variations in the tone or the colour depend upon the orientation of incoming radiations, surface properties and the composition of the objects.

2. Texture: The texture refers to the minor variations in tones of grey or hues of colour. These variations are primarily caused by an aggregation of smaller unit features that fail to be discerned individually such as high density and low density residential areas; slums and squatter settlements; garbage and other forms of solid waste; and different types of crops and plants. The textural differences in the images of certain objects vary from smooth to coarse textures.

3. Size: The size of an object as discerned from the resolution or scale of an image is another important characteristic of individual objects. It helps in distinctively identifying the industrial and industrial complexes with residential dwellings.

4. Shape: The general form and configuration or an outline of an individual object provides important clues in the interpretation of remote sensing images. The shape of some of the objects is so distinctive that make them easy to identify. For example, the shape of the Sansad Bhawan is typically distinct from many other built- up features.

5. Shadow: Shadow of an object is a function of the sun’s illumination angle and the height of the object itself. The shape of some of the objects is so typical that they could not be identified without finding out the length of the shadow they cast. For example, the Question utub Minar located in Delhi, minarets of mosques, overhead water tanks, electric or telephone lines, and similar features can only be identified using their shadow.

6. Pattern: The spatial arrangements of many natural and man-made features show repetitive appearance of forms and relationships. The arrangements can easily be identified from the images through the utilisation of the pattern they form. For example, planned residential areas with the same size and layout plan of the dwelling units in an urban area can easily be identified if their pattern is followed.

7. Association: The association refers to the relationship between the objects and their surroundings along with their geographical location. For example, an educational institution always finds its association with its location in or near a residential area as well as the location of a playground within the same premises.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 7 Viva Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Radiometric Resolution?
Answer:
It is the capability of the sensor to discriminate between two targets. Higher the radiometric resolution, smaller the radiance differences that can be detected between two targets.

Question 2.
Four different types of light sensitive film emulsion bases are used to obtain photographs. What are these?
Answer:
Four different types of light sensitive film emulsion bases are used to obtain photographs. These are black and white, colour, black and white infrared and colour infrared.

Question 3.
What is a digital image?
Answer:
A digital image consists of discrete picture elements called pixels. Each one of the pixels in an image has an intensity value and an address in two-dimensional image space. A digital number (DN) represents the average intensity value of a pixel.

Question 4.
When was the term remote sensing first used?
Answer:
The term remote sensing was first used in the early 1960s.

Question 5.
What is a sensor?
Answer:
A sensor is a device that gathers electromagnetic radiations, converts it into a signal and presents it in a form suitable for obtaining information about the objects under investigation.

Question 6.
Based upon the form of the data output, the sensors are classified into how many types?
Answer:
Based upon the form of the data output, the sensors are classified into two types:

1. Photographic Sensors (analogue) and
2. Non-photographic (digital) sensors.

Question 7.
How will you distinguish photographic sensors from non-photographic sensors?
Answer:
A photographic sensor (camera) records the images of the objects at an instance of exposure. On the other hand, a non-photographic sensor obtains the images of the objects in bit-by-bit form. These sensors are known as scanners.

Question 8.
Why is remote sensing a better technique than other traditional methods?
Answer: Remote sensing is a better technique than traditional methods because it presents the concise picture of a large area; provides real or nearly real pictures on time base line, it is less expensive as compared to land survey and we can easily collect information by using it. It converts energy received into photographic/digital form of data. It is not affected by bad weather and inaccessible land.

Introduction to Remote Sensing Notes

• The term remote sensing was first used in the early 1960s.
• A sensor is a device that gathers electromagnetic radiations, converts it into a signal and presents it in a form suitable for obtaining information about the objects under investigation.
• Based upon the form of the data output, the sensors are classified into two types:
  • Photographic Sensors (analogue) and
  • Non-photographic (digital) sensors.
• A photographic sensor (camera) records the images of the objects at an instance of exposure. On the other hand, a non-photographic sensor obtains the images of the objects in bit-by-bit form. These sensors are known as scanners.
• In satellite remote sensing, the Multi Spectral Scanners (MSS) are used as sensors. These sensors are designed to obtain images of the objects while sweeping across the field of view.
• The Multi Spectral Scanners are divided into the following types:
  • Whiskbroom Scanners
  • Pushbroom Scanners.
• Based upon the mechanism used in detecting and recording, the remotely sensed data products may be broadly classified into two types:
  • Photographic Images
  • Digital Images
• Four different types of light sensitive film emulsion bases are used to obtain photographs. These are black and white, colour, black and white infrared and colour infrared. However, in aerial photography black and white film is normally used. Photographs may be enlarged to any extent without losing information contents or the contrast.
• Intentionally or unintentionally, we use the form, size, location of the objects and their relationships with the surrounding objects to identify them in our day-to-day life. These characteristics of objects are termed as elements of visual interpretation.

• both qualitative and quantitative properties of such features could be carried out using either visual interpretation methods or digital image processing techniques.
• Electromagnetic energy may be detected either photographically or electronically. The photographic process uses light sensitive film to detect and record energy variations. On the other hand, a scanning device obtains images in digital mode.

Introduction to Remote Sensing Important terms

• Absorbance: The ratio of the radiant energy absorbed by a substance to the energy it receives is called absorbance.
• Remote Sensing: It is defined as the total processes used to acquire and measure the information of some property of objects and phenomena by a recording device (sensor) that is not in physical contact with the objects and phenomena in study.
• Band: The specific wavelength interval in the electromagnetic spectrum is called band.
• Digital image: An array of digital numbers (DN) arranged in rows and columns which are having the property of an intensity value and their locations is termed as digital image.
• Digital Number: An intensity value of a pixel in a digital image is called digital number.
• Digital Image Processing: The numerical manipulation of digital numbers values for the purpose of extracting information about the phenomena of the surface they represent is termed as digital image processing.
• Pixel: A digital image consists of discrete picture elements called pixels. Each one of the pixels in an image has an intensity value and an address in two-dimensional image space.
• Electromagnetic Radiation (EMR): The Energy propagated through a space or a medium at a speed of light is called electromagnetic radiation.
• Electromagnetic Spectrum: The continuum of electromagnetic radiation that ranges from short wave high frequency cosmic radiations to long-wavelength low-frequency radio waves.
• Multispectral Scanners: In satellite remote sensing, the Multi-Spectral Scanners (MSS) are used as sensors. These sensors are designed to obtain images of the objects while sweeping across the field of view.
• TFOV: The total extent of the oscillating sensor is known as the Total Field of View (TFOV) of the scanner.
• IFOV: While scanning the entire field, the sensor’s optical head is always placed at a particular dimension called the Instantaneous Field of View (IFOV).
• False Colour Composite (FCC): An artificially generated colour image in which blue, green and red colours are assigned to the wavelength regions to which they do not belong in nature.
• Gray scale: A medium to calibrate the variations in the brightness of an image that ranges from black to white with intermediate grey values is called gray scale.
• Image: It is the permanent record of a scene comprising of natural and man-made features and activities, produced by photographic and non-photographic means.
• Scene: The ground area covered by an image or a photograph is called a scene.
• Swath: The motor device which oscillates the scanning mirror through the angular field of view of the sensor, which determines the length of scan lines is called swath.
• Sensor: A sensor is a device that gathers electromagnetic radiations, converts it into a signal and presents it in a form suitable for obtaining information about the objects under investigation.
• Reflectance: It is the ratio of the radiant energy reflected by a substance to the energy it receives. ‘
• Spectral Band: It is the range of the wavelengths in the continuous spectrum such as the green band ranges from 0.5 to 0.6 p and the range of NIR band 0.7 to 1.1 p.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 3 Human Development

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following is India’s rank in terms of Human Development Index among the countries of the world in 2011?
(a) 126
(b) 134
(c) 128
(d) 129
Answer:
(b) 134

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following states of India has the highest rank in the Human Development Index?
(a). Jamil Nadu
(b) Punjab
(c) Kerala
(d) Haryana
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following states of India has the lowest female literacy?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Bihar
Answer:
(d) Bihar

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following states of India has the lowest female child sex ratio 0-6 years?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Haryana

Question 1.(v)
Which one of the following Union Territories of India has the highest literacy rate?
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer:
(a) Lakshadweep

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Define Human Development.
Answer:
“Human development is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choices, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment and covering the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom.”

Question 2.(ii)
Give two reasons for low levels of Human Development in most of the Northern States of India.
Answer:
Kerala with the composite index value of 0.638 is placed at the top rank. There are several socio-political, economic and historical reasons for such a state of affairs. Kerala is able to record the highest value in the HDI largely due to its impressive performance in achieving near hundred per cent literacy (90.92 per cent) in 2001. Apart from the educational attainment, the levels of economic development too play significant impacts on HDI. Lack of awareness and opportunities for education and lack of job opportunities are the reasons for poor development and low HDI ranking in the Northern states of India.

Question 2.(iii)
Give two reasons for declining child sex ratio in India.
Answer:
The main underlying causes is the social attitude of the people which results from the cultural fabric of the country , where there is general preference for male child. People tend to have male children and also there are illegal practices of female infanticide and in modem times pesticides rampant. The states with highest per capita income have lowest child sex ratio because these states have facilities of pre natal sex determination resulting sex selective abortion resulting in low child sex ratio. Also after the birth of female child, the negligence on health care of the female child leads to higher infant mortality rates for female kids resulting in low child sex ratio.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Discuss the spatial patterns of female literacy in India in 2001 and bring out the reasons responsible for it.
Answer:
Overall literacy in India is approximately 65.4 per cent (2001) while female literacy is only 54.16 per cent. Total literacy as well as female literacy is higher than the national average in most of the states from south India. There are wide regional disparities in literacy rate across the states of India. There is a state like Bihar which has veiy low (47.53 per cent) literacy and there are states like Kerala and Mizoram which have literacy rates of 90.92 and 88.49 per cent respectively.

Kerala is able to record the highest value in the HDI largely due to its impressive performance in achieving near hundred per cent literacy (90.92 per cent) in 2001. In a different scenario the states like Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Assam and Uttar Pradesh have very low literacy. For example, total literacy rate for Bihar was as low as 60.32 per cent during the same year. States showing higher total literacy rates have less gaps between the male and female literacy rates. For Kerala, it is 6.34 per cent, while it is 26.75 per cent in Bihar and 25.95 per cent in Madhya Pradesh.

Apart from the spatial variations, percentage of literates in the rural areas and among the marginalized sections of our society such as females, scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, agricultural labourers, etc. is very low. It is worth mentioning here that though, there has been improvement in the percentage of literates among the marginalized section yet the gap between the richer and the marginalized sections of the population has increased over the years.

Question 3.(ii)
Which factors have caused spatial variations in the levels of Human Development among the 15 major states in India?
Answer:
India has been placed among the countries with medium human development index. It has human development index of 134. Kerala with the composite index value of 0.638 is placed at the top rank followed by Punjab (0.537), Tamil Nadu (0.531) Maharashtra (0.523) and Haryana (0.509). States like Bihar (0.367), Assam (0.386), Uttar Pradesh (0.388), Madhya Pradesh (0.394) and Odisha (0.404) are at the bottom among the 15 major states in India.

There are several socio-political, economic and historical reasons for such a state of affairs. Kerala is able to record the highest value in the HDI largely due to its impressive performance in achieving near hundred per cent literacy (90.92 per cent) in 2001. States like Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Assam and Uttar Pradesh have very low literacy. States showing higher total literacy rates have less gaps between the male and female literacy rates.

Apart from the educational attainment, the levels of economic development too play significant impacts on HDI. Economically developed states like Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Punjab and Haryana have higher value of HDI as compared to states like Assam, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, etc.

Regional distortions and social disparities continue to play an important role in the Indian economy, polity and society. In India, social divisions of caste, religion, sex plays an important role in the access of the particular social group to various life chances, hence alter their standing in the human development index. It is found that states with wider variations in social group like Uttar Pradesh tend to have lower Human development index due to communal tensions, differential resource distribution to people of different social groups.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the states with lowest & highest percentage -of people below poverty line.
Answer:
As per 2001 data of Planning Commission of India the state with lowest percentage of people below poverty line is Jammu and Kashmir, where Odisha has the highest number of people below poverty line.

Question 2.
Which factors differentiate states with high HDI value from low HDI value?
Answer:
There are several socio-political, economic and historical reasons that differentiate the states with high frbm states with low HDI values.

Question 3.
What do you mean by development?
Answer:
It is freedom which is often associated with modernisation, leisure, comfort and affluence. In the present context, computerisation, industrialisation, efficient transport and communication network, large education system, advanced and modern medical facilities, safety and security of individuals, etc. are considered as the symbols of development.

Question 4.
‘Development is biased’. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Development of a few regions, individuals brought about in a short span of time leads to poverty and malnutrition for many along with large scale ecological degradation. It makes one feel that development is biased. But actual development is one which improves quality of life for one and all.

Question 5.
What components are considered as symbols of development?
Answer:
Computerization, industrialization, efficient transport and communication network, large education system, advanced and modern medical facilities, safety and security of individuals, etc. are considered as the symbols of development.

Question 6.
Explain the meaning of development in context of India.
Answer:
Every individual, community and government measures its performance or levels of development in relation to the availability and access to some of these things. But, this may be partial and one-sided view of development.

Question 7.
Who are the most marginalized group in Indian context?
Answer:
It is a well-established fact that majority of the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, landless agricultural labourers, poor farmers and slums dwellers, etc. are the most marginalized group in Indian context.

Question 8.
What is special in Human Development Report, 1993?
Answer:
According to the Human Development Report 1993, “progressive democratization and increasing empowerment of people are seen as the minimum conditions for human development”. Moreover, it also mentions that “development must be woven around people, not the people around development”.

Question 9.
On what basis has Planning Commission of India prepared Human Development Report?
Answer:
Using the indicators selected by the UNDP, the Planning Commission of India also prepared the Human Development Report for India. It used states and the Union Territories as the units of analysis. Subsequently, each state government also started preparing the state level Human Development Reports, using districts as the units of analysis.

Question 10.
What is considered the key to human development?
Answer:
Enlarging the range of people’s choices is the most significant aspect of human development. People’s choices may involve a host of other issues, but, living a long and healthy life, to be educated and have access to resources needed for a decent standard of living including political freedom, guaranteed human rights and personal self-respect, etc. are considered key to human development.

Question 11.
“Poverty is a state of deprivation”. Explain.
Answer:
Poverty is a state of deprivation. In absolute terms, it reflects the inability of an individual to satisfy certain basic needs for a sustained, healthy and reasonably productive living. It is a state where a person is deprived of even the most basic needs of life.

Question 12.
Life free from illness and ailment and living a reasonably long lifespan are indicative of a healthy life. Explain.
Answer:
Availability of pre and post-natal health care facilities in order to reduce infant mortality and post delivery deaths among mothers, old age health care, adequate nutrition and safety of individual are some important measures of a healthy and reasonably long life.

Question 13.
‘Development is freedom’. What does this statement signify?
Answer:
‘Development is freedom’. It means freedom from hunger, poverty, servitude, bondage, ignorance, illiteracy and any other forms of domination is the key to human development. Freedom in real sense of the term is possible only with the empowerment and participation of the people in the exercise of their capabilities and choices in the society.

Question 14.
In which states is the literacy rate high?
Answer:
Total literacy as well as female literacy is higher than the national average in most of the states from South India. [Kerala and Mizoram have literacy rates of 90.92 and 88.49% respectively].

Question 15.
Name five countries with the highest HDI ranking.
Answer:
Norway has the highest HDI index in the world with 0.963 followed by Australia with 0.955, Sweden with 0.949, Switzerland with 0.947 and USA with 0.944.

Question 16.
Which five states of India have the lowest rank in HDI?
Answer:
In India, Human Development Index of Bihar is 0.367 followed by Assam with 0.386, Uttar Pradesh with 0.388, Madhya Pradesh with 0.394 and Odisha with 0.404.

Question 17.
Which country has proclaimed ‘Gross National Hapiness’ as the measure of a country’s progress?
Answer:
Bhutan has proclaimed ‘Gross National Hapiness’ as the measure of a country’s progress.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the factors which might have caused India’s poor showing/ranking in HDI ranking.
Answer:
India with a population of 1.2 billion is ranked 134th out of 172 countries as per the UNDP HDI report 2011, with a value of 0.547. There are various historical factors which are responsible for India’s poor ranking in HDI like colonialisation, social-cultural factors like Human Right violation, social discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender and caste, social problems like crime, terrorism and lower level of empowerment among marginal members of society has special significance in this regard.

Question 2.
List three interesting features of India’s literacy as per 2001 census report
Answer:
The three interesting features of India’s literacy as per 2001 census report are:

• Overall literacy in India is approximately 65.4 per cent (2001). While female literacy is 54.16 per cent.
• Total literacy as well as female literacy is higher than the national average in most of the states from south India.
• There are wide regional disparities in literacy rate across the states of India. There is a state like Bihar which has very low (47.53 per cent) literacy and there are states like Kerala and Mizoram which have literacy rates of 90.92 and 88.49 per cent respectively.

Question 3.
Which factors are responsible for the variation in Human Development among the states of India?
Answer:
There are several socio-political, economic and historical reasons for such a state of affairs. Kerala is able to record the highest value in the HDI largely due to its impressive performance in achieving near hundred per cent literacy. States like Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Assam and Uttar Pradesh have very low literacy. States showing higher total literacy rates have less gaps between the male and female literacy rates.

Apart from the educational attainment, the levels of economic development too play significant impacts on HDI. Economically developed states like Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Punjab and Haryana have higher value of HDI as compared to
states like Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, etc.

Regional distortions and social disparities play an important role in the Indian economy, polity and society. The Government of India has made concerted efforts to institutionalize the balanced development with its main focus on social distributive justice through planned development.

Question 4.
What are the direct bearings of development on deteriorating human conditions?
Answer:
Developmental activities causes environmental pollution and ecological crises. It leads to air, soil, water and .noise pollution’s and threaten the existence of a society. The poor are subjected to three interrelated processes of declining capabilities; i.e.

• social capabilities – due to displacement and weakening social ties (social capital),
• environmental capabilities – due to pollution and,
• personal capabilities – due to increasing incidence of diseases and accidents.

This, in turn, has adverse effects on their quality of life and human development. So, developmental activities are considered as a main source of social distributive injustice, deterioration in the quality of life, ecological crises and social unrest.

Question 5.
Mention the important measures of a healthy and long life.
Answer:

• Life free from illness and ailment and living a reasonably long lifespan are indicative of a healthy life.
• Availability of pre and post-natal health care facilities in order to reduce infant mortality and post delivery deaths among mothers.
• Old age health care.
• Adequate nutrition.
• Safety of individuals.

Question 6.
Mention the major issues which UNDP considered important in achieving Human development.
Answer:

• People’s participation and their security
• Democratization
• Increasing empowerment of people
• Bringing about peace and human development
• Reduction in the military expenditure, ’ demobilization of armed forces, transition from defence to production of basic goods and services and particularly disarmament and reduction in countries.
• Peace and well-being are major global concerns.

Question 7.
Explain the level of literacy in India.
Answer:
Overall literacy in India is approx. 5.4% while female literacy is 54.16%.

• Total literacy as well as female literacy is higher than the national average in most of the states from South India.
• There are wide regional disparities in literacy rate across the states of India.
• States like Bihar has a very low (47.53%) literacy whereas states like Kerala and Mizoram have literacy rates of 90.92 and 88.49% respectively.
• Percentage of literate in the rural areas and among the marginalized sections of our society such as females, SC’s, ST’s and agricultural labourers is very low.

Question 8.
Explain thoughts of Mahatma Gandhi in context of development.
Answer:
Indian culture and civilization have been very sensitive to the issues of population resource and development for a long time.

• Mahatma Gandhi in recent time advocated for the reinforcement of harmony and balance between the two, that is population resource and development.
• He was quite apprehensive about the on¬going development particularly the way industrialization has institutionalized the loss of morality, spirituality, self¬reliance, non-violence, and mutual cooperation and environment.
• Austerity for individuals, trusteeship of social wealth and non-violence are the key to attain higher goals in the life of an individual as well as that of a nation.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a report on the Human Development in India from the point of economic, health & social empowerment.
Answer:
It is believed that “Development is freedom” which is often associated with modernization leisure, comfort and affluence. In the present context computerization, industrialization, efficient transport and communication network, large education system, advanced and modern medical facilities, safety and security of individuals, etc. are considered as the symbols of development.

Indicators of Economic Attainments: A rich resource base and access to these resources by all, particularly the poor, downtrodden and the marginalized is the key to productivity, well-being and human development. Gross National Product (GNP) and its per capita availability are taken as measures to assess the resource base/endowment of any country. Prevalence of poverty, illiteracy, deprivation and injustice in social distribution system and regional disparities belie all the economic achievements in India. Developed states like Maharasthra, Punjab, Haryana and Gujarat have high per capita income. The poorer states of U.P., Bihar, Odisha, M.P., Assam have less per capita income. In states like Odisha and Bihar more than 40% population live below poverty line.

Indicators of Healthy Life: A disease free and a relatively long life is indicator of healthy life. Some of the measures of healthy life are availability of pre and post natal healthcare system facilities, old age health care, adequate nutrition and safety of individuals. Over the years the death rate has come down from 25.1 per thousand in 1951 to 8.1 per thousand in 1999. Birth rate has gone down from 40.8 to 26.1 during the same time period. The life expectancy has increased from 37.1 years to 62.3 years for males and 36.2 to 65.3 years for females from 1951 to 1999. India has recorded a declining sex ratio except in the state of Kerala.

Social Empowerment: Freedom in real sense of the term is possible only with the empowerment and participation of the people in the exercise of their capabilities and choices in the society. Access to knowledge about the society and environment are fundamental to freedom. Literacy is the beginning of access to such a world of knowledge and freedom. In India the overall literacy rate is 65.4% (2001) and female literacy is 54.1%, ranging from 47% in Bihar to 91% in Kerala. It has been observed that literacy rate is more in southern states than the national average. Apart from the spatial variation, literacy rate is lower in rural areas and marginalized sections of the society. Though the literacy rate has increased among the marginalized section, yet the gap has increased between them and the rich.

Question 2.
With example show how population, development and environment are inter related?
Answer:
There is a general notion that if development is achieved then it will solve all the social-cultural and environmental problems of the society. Development, along with it has increased regional disparities, social inequality, displacement of people, discrimination, deprivation, abuse of human rights and human values and has led to environmental degradation.

UNDP in its human development report 1993 laid emphasis on progressive democratization and increasing empowerment of people. It recognized the constructive role of civil society in bringing peace and human development for reduction in military expenditure, demobilization of armed forces and transition from defence to production of basic goods and services.

The neo-Malthusian environmentalists believe that proper balance between population and resources is necessary for happy and peaceful social life. Developmental activities have increased the multiple uses of the limited available resources in order to cater to the growing demand, but since resources are unevenly distributed so there is injustice in social distribution. The richer countries have more access while the resources are shrinking in poorer countries, thereby leading to conflict as well as apparent contradiction between population, resource and development.

Indian culture is concerned about the balance and harmony among the elements of nature. According to Gandhiji austerity for individual, trusteeship of social wealth and non- violence are the key to attain higher goals in the life of an individual as well as that of a nation.

Question 3.
“Development is a mix bag of opportunities as well as neglect and deprivation”. Explain.
Answer:
There are a few areas like the metropolitan centers and other developed enclaves that have all the modern facilities available to a small section of its population. At the other extreme of it, there are large rural areas and the slums in the urban areas that do not have basic amenities like potable water, education and health infrastructure available to majority of this population. The situation is more alarming if one looks at the distribution of the development opportunities among different sections of our society.

It is a well established fact that majority of the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, landless agricultural labourers, poor farmers and slums dwellers, etc. are the most marginalized lot. A large segment of female population is the worst sufferers among all. It is also equally true that the relative as well as absolute conditions of the majority of these marginalized sections have worsened with the development happening over the years. Consequently, vast majority of people are compelled to live under abject poverty and subhuman conditions. There is yet another inter-related aspect of development that has direct bearings on the deteriorating human conditions. It pertains to the environmental pollution leading to ecological crisis.

Question 4.
Describe the level of economic achievements in India.
Answer:
The level of economic achievements in India can be understood from the following:

• Gross National Product (GNP) and per capita availability are taken as measures to access the resource base of any country. GDP was ? 3200 thousand crores and according to per capita income it was ? 20,813.
• Prevalence of poverty, deprivation, malnutrition, illiteracy various types of prejudice and above all social distributive injustices and large scale regional disparities.
• Few developed states like Maharashtra, Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat and Delhi that have per capita income more than ? 4,000 per year and a large number of poorer states like U.P. Bihar, Odisha, M.P., Assam, J&K have recorded per capita income less than ? 2,000.
• The developed states have higher per capita income consumption expenditure as compared to the poorer states.
• These variations are indicative of deep- seated problems of poverty, unemployment and under-employment.
• States like Bihar and Odisha have recorded more than 40 per cent population living below poverty line.
• Employment rate for educated is 25%. Jobless growth and rampant unemploy¬ment are some of the important reasons for higher incidences of poverty in India.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Differentiates

Question 1.
Distinguish between human development and economic development.
Answer:

Human Development	Economic Development
(i) It means the well-being of people in its broad perspective, for example, Social economic and cultural development.	(i) The concept of economic development exclusively focuses on increase in income.
(ii) It cannot be achieved without economic growth.	(ii) It depends on development of technology and education.
(iii) It should be around people.	(iii) It is achieved through GNP and per capita income.
(iv) It helps in raising the level of well-being.	(iv) It can be achieved through skills and knowledge of utilizing resources.
(v) People must have opportunities to invest in improvement of health education, training.	(v) It is essential for the improvement of standard of living and well-being.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Do you agree that “development must be woven around people, not the people around development”? Illustrate.
Answer:
Yes, I agree that “development must be woven around people, not the people around development”. For this we need following steps:

• Orientation towards sustainable development.
• Empowerment of people.
• Encouraging democratization.
• Efforts to remove regional imbalances.
• Maximization of expenditure on welfare.
• Building human capabilities in the field of health, education and access to resources.

Question 2.
The prime task before any development activity is to maintain parity between population and resources. Elaborate it in the light of NeoMalthusian theory.
Answer:
It is absolutely right to say that the prime task before any development activity is to maintain parity between population and resources.

• Proper balance between population and resources.’
• To reduce the gap between population and resources.
• Limited resources but increase in demand due to population explosion.
• Over exploitation of the resources by rich and powerful people leads to conflicts and contradictions in the society.

Question 3.
What are the reasons behind male- female literacy gaps?
Answer:
Following are the reasons behind male-female literacy gaps:

• Sexual division of labour: Since ancient times, it is assumed that economic and social activities are part of males and females should stay at home for bearing and rearing up of children. It has developed an attitude that education is not as important for females as it is for males.
• Security: In some regions schools are located at distance and it is not safe to send girls alone to such far off places.
• Marriage System: In India, girls leave their parents’ home after marriage. So they feel that investing in girls education will give as much rewards as investment in the boys’ education. So parents are willing to spend more on the education of their sons.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Locate and label the following on the given political map of India with appropriate symbols:
(i) State having low level H.D.I.
(ii) State having high level H.D.I.
Answer:
(i) Chhattisgarh and Odisha
(ii) Kerala

Question 2.
Locate and label the following on the given political map of India with appropriate symbols:
(i) State having low gender ratio.
(ii) State having high gender ratio.
Answer:
(i) Haryana
(ii) Kerala

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which state of India has the lowest literacy rate? Mention its literacy rate also. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Bihar, 47.53 per cent.

Question 2.
Name the two states of India which have less than five per cent of the population below poverty line. (A.I. 2009)
Answer:
Goa and Jammu & Kashmir.

Question 3.
Mention any two key areas of measuring “human development’. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:

• Health
• Education
• Access to resources.

Question 4.
Which state of India has the lowest female literacy rate? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Rajasthan (52.66%) (2011) state has the lowest female literacy rate in India.

Question 5.
Which state of India has the highest rank in Human Development Index (HDI) value? (CBSE 2012, A.1.2014)
OR
Which state of India has the top rank in the ‘Human Development Index? (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Kerala ranks the highest value of 0.790 (2007-08).

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
“Development is general and human development in particular is a complex concept used in social science.” Justify this statement with suitable arguments. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
No doubt human development is a complex because for ages it was thought that the development is a substantive concept. Once it is achieved it will address all the social-cultural and environmental ills of the society. Though development has brought improvement in the quality of life but more than one way it has increased regional disparities social inequalities, discrimination, deprivation and displacement of people.

Considering the gravity and sensitivity of the issues involved, the UNDP in its Human Development Report, 1993 tried to amend some of the implicit biases and prejudices. People participation and their security were the major issues in the Human Development Report of 1993 It also emphasized on progressive democratization and increasing empowerment of people as minimum conditions for human development.

The ‘civil societies’ should work to building up opinion for reduction in the military expenditure. In a nuclearised world, peace and well being are major global concerns.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions