Category: CBSE

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 3 Graphical Representation of Data

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question1(i).
Which one of the following map shows the population distribution?
(a) Choropleth maps
(b) Isopleth maps
(c) Dot maps
(d) Square root map
Answer:
(c) Dot maps

Question1(ii).
Which one of the following is best suited to represent the decadal growth of population?
(a) Line graph
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Circle diagram
(d) Flow diagram
Answer:
(a) Line Graph

Question1(iii).
Polygraph is constructed to represent:
(a) Only one variable
(b) Two variables only
(c) More than two variables
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More than two variables

Question1(iv).
Which one of the following maps is known as “Dynamic Map”?
(a) Dot map
(b) Choropleth
(c) Isopleth
(d) Flow map
Answer:
(d) Flow map

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
What is a thematic map?
Answer:
Maps drawn to study a particular theme like rainfall, temperature, soil type, etc. is called a thematic map. Thematic maps, graphs and diagrams serve a useful purpose in providing a comparison between the internal variations within the data of different characteristics represented.

Question 2(ii).
Differentiate between multiple bar diagram and compound bar diagram.
Answer:
Multiple Bar Diagram: Multiple bar diagrams are constructed to represent two or more than two variables for the purpose of comparison.
For example, we can draw two bars one indicating literacy rate of males and other literacy rate of females.

Compound Bar Diagram: When different components are grouped in one set of variables or different variables of one component are put together, their representation is made by a compound bar diagram. In this method, different variables are shown in a single bar with different rectangles.
For example, total electricity produced in India is sub-divided into hydro power, thermal power, nuclear power, etc.

Question 2(iii).
What are the requirements to construct a dot map?
Answer:
The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.

Requirements:

• An administrative map of the given area showing state/district/block boundaries.
• Statistical data on selected theme for the chosen administrative units, i.e. total population, cattle, etc.
• Selection of a scale to determine the value of a dot.
• Physiographic map of the region especially relief and drainage maps.

Precautions:

• The lines demarcating the boundaries of various administrative units should not be very thick and bold.
• All dots should be of same size.

Question 2(iv).
Describe the method of constructing a traffic flow map.
Answer:
Traffic flow map is a combination of graph and map. It is drawn to show the flow of commodities or people between the places of origin and destination. It is also called Dynamic Map. Transport map, which shows number of passengers, vehicles, etc., is the best example of a flow chart. These charts are drawn using lines of proportional width. Many government agencies prepare traffic flow maps to show density of the means of transportation on different routes.

Methods for the Preparation of a Traffic Flow Map:

• A route map depicting the desired transport routes along with the connecting stations.
• The data pertaining to the flow of goods, services, number of vehicles, etc. along with the point of origin and destination of the movements.
• The selection of a scale through which the data related to the quantity of passengers and goods or the number of vehicles is to be represented.

Question 2(v).
What is an Isopleth map? How an interpolation is carried out?
Answer:
The word Isopleth is derived from Iso meaning equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred as Isopleth.The more frequently drawn isopleths include Isotherm (equal temperature), Isobar (equal pressure), Isohyets (equal rainfall), Isonephs (equal cloudiness), Isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), Isobaths (equal depths), Isohaline (equal salinity), etc. Interpolation is used to insert the intermediate values between the observed values of two stations/locations, such as temperature recorded at Chennai and Hyderabad or the spot heights of two points. Generally, drawing of isopleths joining the places of the same value is also termed as interpolation.

Methods of Interpolation:

• Firstly, determine the minimum and maximum values given on the map.
• Calculate the range of value, i.e. range = maximum value – minimum value.
• Based on range, determine the interval in a whole number like 5, 10, 15, etc.
• The exact point of drawing an isopleth is determined by using the following formula

Question 2(vi).
Describe and illustrate important steps to be followed in preparing a Choropleth map.
Answer:
The Choropleth maps are drawn to prepare the characteristics of data as they are related to the administrative units. These means are used to represent the literacy rate, sex ratio and density of population.
Steps to be followed:

• Arrange the data in ascending or descending order.
• Group the data into 5 categories to represent very high, high, medium, low and very low concentrations.
• The interval between the categories may be identified on the following formula, i.e. Range/5 and Range = maximum value – minimum value.
• Patterns, shades or colour to be used to depict the chosen categories should be marked in an increasing or decreasing order.

Original Data on Literacy in India
SI.No.	States/Union territories	Literacy Rate
1.	Jammu 8s Kashmir	55.5
2.	Himachal Pradesh	76.5
3.	Punjab	69.7
4.	Chandigarh	81.9
5.	Uttarakhand	71.6
6.	Haryana	67.9
7.	Delhi	81.7
8.	Rajasthan	60.4
9.	Uttar Pradesh	56.3
10.	Bihar	47.0
11.	Sikkim	68.8
12.	Arunachal Pradesh	54.3
13.	Nagaland	66.6
14.	Manipur	70.5
15.	Mizoram	88.8
16.	Tripura	73.2
17.	Meghalaya	62.6
18.	Assam	63.3
19.	West Bengal	68.6
20.	Jharkhand	53.6
21.	Odisha	63.1
22.	Chhattisgarh	64.7
23.	Madhya Pradesh	63.7
24.	Gujarat	69.1
25.	Daman & Diu	78.2
26.	Dadra 8s Nagar Haveli	57.6
27.	Maharashtra	76.9
28.	Andhra Pradesh	60.5
29.	Karnataka	66.6
30.	Goa	82.0
31.	Lakshadweep	86.7
32.	Kerala	90.9
33.	Tamil Nadu	73.5
34.	Puducherry	81.2
35.	Andaman & Nicobar Islands	81.3

 

Original Data on Literacy in India
SI.No.	States/Union territories	Literacy Rate
10.	Bihar	47.0
20.	Jharkhand	53.6
12.	Arunachal Pradesh	54.3
01.	Jammu 8s Kashmir	55.5
9.	Uttar Pradesh	56.3
26.	Dadra 8s Nagar Haveli	57.6
08.	Rajasthan	60.4
28.	Andhra Pradesh	60.5
17.	Meghalaya	62.6
21.	Odisha	63.1
18.	Assam	63.3
23.	Madhya Pradesh	63.7
22.	Chhattisgarh	64.7
13.	Nagaland	66.6
29.	Karnataka	66.6
06:	Haryana	67.9
19.	West Bengal	68.6
11.	Sikkim	68.8
24.	Gujarat	69.1
03.	Punjab	69.7
14.	Manipur	70.5
05.	Uttarakhand	71.6
16.	Tripura	73.2
33.	Tamil Nadu	73.5
02.	Himachal Pradesh	76.5
27.	Maharashtra	76.9
25.	Daman & Diu	78.2
34.	Puducherry	81.2
35.	Andaman & Nicobar Islands	81.3
07.	Delhi	81.7
04.	Chandigarh	81.9
30.	Goa	82.0
31.	Lakshadweep	86.7
15.	Mizoram	88.8
32.	Kerala	90.9

Construction:

• Arrange the data in ascending order as shown above.
• Identify the range within the data. The states recording the lowest and highest literacy rates are Bihar (47%) and the Kerala (90.9%) respectively. Hence, the range would be 91.0 – 47.0 = 44.0.
• Divide the range by 5 to get categories from very low to veiy high. (44.0/ 5 = 8.80. We can convert this value to a round number say 9.0.
• Determine the number of the categories along with range of each category. Add 9.0 to the lowest value of 47.0 as so on.

Following categories will be obtained:

(i) 47 – 56
Very low (Bihar, Jharkhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir)
(ii) 56 – 65
Low (Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya,
Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh)
(iii) 65 – 74
Medium (Nagaland, Karnataka, Haryana, West Bengal, Sikkim, Gujarat, Punjab, Manipur, Uttarakhand, Tripura, Tamil Nadu)
(iv) 74 – 83
High (Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Delhi, Goa)
(v) 83 – 92
Very High (Mizoram, Kerala)

• Assign the shades/pattern to each category ranging from lower to higher hues

Question 2(vii).
Construct a pie chart with this information.
Students in an adult school were surveyed about the type of transport they use to travel to school.
The results were:
Walking 3, Train 6, Tram 9, Car 10, Bicycle 12.
pie chart
Total Population of Students=40

Total Population of Students=40

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Represent the following data with the help of suitable diagram.

Answer:
Range of the data = 46.14 – 0.35=45.79
Line graph will be the right method to present these data.

Question 2.
Represent the following data with the help of suitable diagram.
India: Literacy and Enrolment Ratio in Primary and Upper Primary Schools

Answer:

Question 3.
Represent the following data with help of pie-diagram.
India: Land use 1951-2001

Answer:

Question 4.
Study the table given below and draw the given diagrams/maps.
Area and Production of Rice in Major States

Construct a multiple bar diagram to show area under rice in each state.
Construct a pie-diagram to show the percentage of area under rice in each state.
Construct a dot map to show the production of rice in each state.
Construct a Choropleth map to show the percentage of production of rice in states.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Question 5.
Show the following data of temperature and rainfall of Kolkata with a suitable diagram.

Months	Temperature in 0C	Rainfall in cm
Jan.	19.6	1.2
Feb.	22.0	2.8
Mar.	27.1	3.4
Apr.	30.1	5.1
May	30.4	13.4
June	29.9	29.0
Jul.	28.9	33.1
Aug.	28.7	33.4
Sep.	28.9	25.3
Oct.	27.6	12.7
Nov.	23.4	2.7
Dec.	19.7	0.4

Answer:

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are data? How are these important?
Answer:
Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data. In other words, quantitative information is called datum. Therefore, data are also called quantitative information.

Question 2.
What is the Chinese proverb in context of diagrams, graphs and maps?
Answer:
There is a Chinese proverb that ‘a picture is equivalent to thousands of words’. Hence, the graphic method of the representation of data enhances our understanding, and makes the comparisons easy.

Question 3.
Why is statistics needed?
Answer:
Statistics are used by geographers, economists, statisticians, resource scientists, planners, decision-makers and some other persons who need to do comparative study and to derive findings.

Question 4.
What are the general rules related to construction of graphs, maps and diagrams?
Answer: General rules for drawing graphs, maps and drawing are:
(a) Selection of a Suitable Method
(b) Selection of Suitable Scale
(c) Design: It includes title, legend, and direction.

Question 5.
Name the most commonly used graphs and maps.
Answer:
The most commonly drawn diagrams and maps and the way they are constructed are:

(a) Line graphs
(b) Bar diagrams
(c) Pie-diagram
(d) Wind rose and star diagram
(e) Flow charts

Question 6.
When are thematic maps drawn?
Answer: Thematic maps, graphs and diagrams serve a useful purpose in providing a comparison between the internal variations within the data of different characteristics represented.

Question 7.
What are different types of quantitative thematic maps?
Answer:
There are three types of quantitative thematic maps:

(a) Dot map
(b) Choropleth map
(c) Isopleth map

Question 8.
What are dot maps?
Answer:
The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.

Question 9.
What are choropleth maps?
Answer:
The choropleth maps are also drawn to depict the data characteristics as they are related to the administrative units. These maps are used to represent the density of population, literacy/growth rates, sex-ratio, etc.

Question 10.
What are more frequently drawn isopleths?
Answer:
The more frequently drawn isopleths include isotherm (equal temperature), isobar (equal pressure), isohyets (equal rainfall), isonephs (equal cloudiness), isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), isobaths (equal depths), isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Question 11.
Why is a flow map called a dynamic map?
Answer:
Flow map is drawn to show the flow of commodities or people between the places of origin and destination. Since it shows many variables together and deals with flow phenomenon, it is also called dynamic map.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In how many categories are maps and graphs used to present data?
Answer:
The diagrams and the maps to represent data can be grouped into the following types:
(a) One-dimensional diagrams such as line graph, polygraph, bar diagram, histogram, age, sex, pyramid, etc.;
(b) Two-dimensional diagram such as pie-diagram and rectangular diagram;
(c) Three-dimensional diagrams such as cube and spherical diagrams.

Question 2.
What do you mean by isopleth?
Answer:
The word Isopleth is derived from. Iso means equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred to as isopleth. The more frequently drawn isopleths include isotherm (equal temperature), isobar (equal pressure), isohyets (equalrainfall), isonephs (equal cloudiness), isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), isobaths (equal depths), isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Question 3.
What is a line graph? For which type of data are they used?
Answer:
In line graph data are presented using a line on graph paper. The line graphs are usually drawn to represent the time series data related to the temperature, rainfall, population growth, birth rates and death rates.
More than one variable can also be presented through line graph to do a comparative analysis. For example, temperature and pressure of an area can be presented in the same graph to make a comparison.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How are data presented using ploygraphs?
Answer:
Polygraph is a line graph in which two or more than two variables are shown by an equal number of lines for an immediate comparison, such as the growth rate of different crops like rice, pulses or the birth rates and life expectancy or sex ratio in different states or countries. A different line pattern such as straight line(___), broken
line (—) dotted line(….) or a combination of dotted and broken line (…–…) or line of
different colours may be used to indicate the value of different variables.

States/UT			Years		2001
	1961	1971	1981	1991
Delhi	785	801	808	827	821
Haryana f.V          ‘	868	867	870	86	846
Uttar Pradesh	907	876	882	876	898

Question 2.
Define and construct a line graph to represent the growth rate of population in India during 1901-2001.
Answer:
The line graph is drawn to represent the time series data related to temperature, rainfall, population growth, birth rates, etc.

Year	1901	1911	1921	1931	1941	1951	1961	1971	1981	1991	2001
Growth rate (in %)		0.56	-0.30	1.04	1.33	1.25	1.96	2.20	2.22	2.14	1.93

Question 3.
Draft a multiple bar diagram.
Answer:
Multiple bar diagram is constructed to represent two or more than two variables for the purpose of comparison.

Year	Literacy Rate
	Total Population	Male	Female
1951	18.33	27.16	8.86
1961	28.3	40.4	15.35
1971	34.45	45.96	21.97
1981	43.57	56.38	29.76
1991	52.21	64.13	39.29
2001	64.84	75.85	54.16

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Viva Questions

Question 1.
In which case histogram is prepared?
Answer:
Continuous series

Question 2.
In what type of graph comparison among the class frequencies is possible?
Answer:
Histogram

Question 3.
Data represented through a histogram can help in finding graphically which measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Mode

Question 4.
Histogram is drawn on what?
Answer:
Graph paper

Question 5.
To find the number of observations less than any given value, we use what type of frequency?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency distribution.

Question 6.
While preparing time series graph, we show which variable on the X-axis?
Answer:
Time

Question 7.
By which type of graph Mode is found graphically?
Answer:
Histogram

Question 8.
A simple frequency distribution of a discrete variable is represented by what?
Answer:
Line Graph

Question 9.
How is a frequency polygon obtained?
Answer: By constructing a frequency histogram and linking the mid-points from a frequency histogram.

Question 10.
Ogives can be helpful in locating graphically which measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Median

Question 11.
Ogive curve can be drawn for which type of frequency?
Answer:
For More than type distribution and Less than type distribution of commulative frequency.

Question 12.
In which graph the breadth of a rectangle is equal to the length of the class-interval?
Answer:
Histogram

Question 13.
What are Dot maps?
Answer:
The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.

Question 14.
What is Choropleth Map?
Answer:
Choropleth maps are also drawn to depict the data characteristics as they are related to the administrative units. These maps are used to represent the density of population, literacy/growth rates, sex-ratio, etc.

Question 15.
What is an Isopleth Map?
Answer:
The word Isopleth is derived from Iso means equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred to as Isopleth. The more frequently drawn isopleths include Isotherm (equal temperature), Isobar (equal pressure), Isohyets (equal rainfall), Isonephs (equal cloudiness), Isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), Isobaths (equal depths), Isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Graphical Representation of Data Notes

• Data can be presented either in text or tabular or semi-tabular or diagrams or graphs or pictures. Diagrams and graphs are more efficient than any other method. Graphs and charts occupy an important place in statistical analysis and inferences. Data are dry and dull for most of the people. It becomes attractive and impressive through diagrammatic and graphical presentation.
• The transformation of data through visual methods like graphs, diagrams, maps and charts is called representation of data.
• Data can be compared and meaningful results can be derived from well-organised and presented data.
• The geographers, economists, resource scientists and the decision-makers use a lot of data these days. Besides the tabular form, the data may also be presented in some graphic or diagrammatic form.
• There is a Chinese proverb that ‘a picture is equivalent to thousands of words’. Hence, the graphic method of the representation of data enhances our understanding, and makes the comparisons easier.
• In Geography, we use presentation of data to understand the patterns of population growth, distribution and the density, sex ratio, age-sex composition, occupational structure, etc. within a geographical territory.
• General rules for drawing graphs, maps and drawing are:
  (a) Selection of a Suitable Method
  (b) Selection of Suitable Scale
  (c) Design—It includes title, legend, and direction.
• The data possess measurable characteristics such as length, width and volume. The diagrams and the maps that are drawn to represent these data related characteristics may be grouped into the following types:
  (a) One-dimensional diagrams such as Line Graph, polygraph, bar diagram, histogram, age, sex, pyramid, etc.
  (b) Two-dimensional diagrams such as pie diagram and rectangular diagram.
  (c) Three-dimensional diagrams such as cube and spherical diagrams.
• The most commonly drawn diagrams and maps and the way they are constructed are:
  (a) Line graphs
  (b) Bar diagrams
  (c) Pie diagram
  (d) Wind rose and star diagram
  (e) Flow charts
• Thematic maps, graphs and diagrams serve a useful purpose in providing a comparison between the internal variations within the data of different characteristics represented.

Graphical Representation of Data Important Terms

• Title: The title of the diagram/map indicates the name of the area, reference year of the data used and the caption of the diagram. These components are represented using letters and numbers of different font sizes and thickness. Besides, their placing also matters. Normally, title, subtitle and the corresponding year are shown in the centre at the top of the map /diagram.
• Legend: A legend or index is an important component of any diagram/map. It explains the colours, shades, symbols and signs used in the map and diagram. It should also be carefully drawn and must correspond to the contents of the map/diagram. Besides, it also needs to be properly positioned. Normally, a legend is shown either at the lower left or lower right side of the map sheet.
• Line Graph: The line graphs are usually drawn to represent the time series data related to the temperature, rainfall, population growth, birth rates and death rates.
• Multiple Bar Diagram: Multiple bar diagrams are constructed to represent two or more than two variables for the purpose of comparison.
• Compound Bar Diagram: When different components are grouped in one set of variable or different variables of one component are put together, their representation is made by a compound bar diagram. In this method, different variables are shown in a single bar with different rectangles.
• Quantitative Maps: Maps depicting quantitative variables like areas receiving more than 200 cm, 100 to 200 cm, 50 to 100 cm and less than 50 cm of rainfall are referred as quantitative maps. These maps are also called statistical maps.
• Qualitative Maps: Map depicting non-measurable characteristics in the distribution of given information such as a map showing high and low rainfall-receiving areas are called non quantitative maps. These maps are also called qualitative maps.
• Dot maps: The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.
• Choropleth Map: The choropleth maps are also drawn to depict the data characteristics as they are related to the administrative units. These maps are used to represent the density of population, literacy/growth rates, sex-ratio, etc.
• Isopleth Map: The word ‘Isopleth’ is derived from Iso means equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred as Isopleth. The more frequently drawn Isopleths include Isotherm (equal temperature), Isobar (equal pressure), Isohyets (equal rainfall), Isonephs (equal cloudiness), Isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), Isobaths (equal depths), Isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the following from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which is not a factor of industrial location?
(a) Market
(b) Capital
(c) Population Density
(d) Power
Answer:
(c) Population Density

Question 1.(ii)
The earliest Iron and Steel Company to be established in India was:
(a) IISCO
(b) TISCO
(c) Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works
(d) Mysore Iron and Steel Works
Answer:
(b) TISCO

Question 1.(iii)
The first modern cotton mill was established in Mumbai because:
(a) Mumbai is a port
(b) It is located near cotton growing area
(c) Mumbai was the financial centre
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 1.(iv)
The nucleus of the Hugli Industrial Region is:
(a) Kolkata-Haora (Howrah)
(b) Kolkata-Rishra
(c) Kolkata-Medinipur
(d) Kolkata-Konnagar
Answer:
(a) Kolkata-Haora (Howrah)

Question 1.(v)
Which one of the following is the second largest producer of sugar:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(b) Uttar Pradesh

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Why do you think that the iron and steel industry is basic to the industrial development of any country?
Answer:
Iron and steel are basic to economic development of any country because they are the basic raw material for production of all other goods- both industrial and commercial. All other industries are based on the products manufactured from these industries. Until and unless iron and steel are produced, even a nail, which is basic to all constructions, cannot be manufactured.

Question 2.(ii)
Name the two sectors of the cottage textile industries. How are they different?
Answer:
The cotton textile industry in India can be broadly divided into two sectors, the organised sector and the unorganised sector. The decentralised sector includes cloth ‘ produced in handlooms (including Khadi) and powerlooms. The production of the organised sector has drastically fallen from 81 per cent in the mid-twentieth century to only about 6 per cent in 2000. At present, the powerlooms on the decentralised sector produce more than the handloom sector.

Question 2.(iii)
Why is the sugar industry a seasonal industry?
Answer:
Sugar industry is totally based on sugarcane as raw material. Sugarcane is a seasonal crop harvested annually. Since sugarcane is a perishable crop and its sucrose content starts to decline within 24 hours only, therefore sugarcane cannot be stored for production of sugar later in the year. As a result production of sugar is limited to only harvesting time of the sugarcane.

Question 2.(iv)
What is the raw material base for the petrochemical industry? Name some of the products of this industry.
Answer:
Crude petroleum is the raw material for the petroleum industry. It is refined to obtain various products, which collectively are referred to as petrochemical industries.This group of industries is divided into four sub-groups:

• polymers,
• synthetic fibres,
• elastomers, and
• surfactant intermediate.

Question 2.(v)
What is the major impact of Information Technology (IT) revolution in India?
Answer:
The advancement in information technology has had a profound influence on the country’s economy. The Information Technology (IT) revolution opened up new possibilities of economic and social transformation. The IT and IT enabled business process outsourcing (ITES- BPO) services continue to be on a robust growth path. Indian software industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing sectors in the economy. The software industry has surpassed electronic hardware production. The Indian government has created a number of software parks in the country. Also it has a large number of females employed in it.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
How did the Swadeshi movement give a major impetus to the cotton textiles industry?
Answer:
Swadeshi movement was the movement, which was started by Gandhiji as a step towards achieving self-sufficiency in production. British goods were boycotted and Indian manufactured products were promoted. British in India deepened their roots by destroying indigenous industries. Swadeshi hit on this very policy of the government. People destroyed foreign manufactured goods in huge quantities; they started spinning for their own clothes. Capital was collected and new mills were setup throughout the country under the impetus provided by the swadeshi movement. New mills, which are still functioning, sprang up throughout the country. Khadi cloth and khadi industry were revived, the traditional artisans who have lost their livelihood were reabsorbed under the swadeshi economy as a movement against the British led economy. Not only large-scale industries were set up but also small and cottage industry was revived. Since under the wave nationalism people were adopting khadi- Indian handloom, the demand for the Indian cotton shot up, hence the entire indigenous cotton industry of India was revived. It also helped in generating employment opportunities leading to overall growth in national income.

Question 3.(ii)
What do you understand by liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation? How have they helped industrial development in India?
Answer:
The New Industrial Policy was announced in 1991. The major objectives of this policy were to build on the gains already made, correct the distortions or weaknesses that have crept in, maintain a sustained growth in productivity and gainful employment and attain international competitiveness. Within this policy, measures initiated are:

• abolition of industrial licensing,
• free entry to foreign technology,
• foreign investment policy,
• access to capital market,
• open trade,
• abolition of phased manufacturing programme, and
• liberalized industrial location programme. The policy has three main dimensions: liberalization, privatisationand globalization.

The industrial licensing system has been abolished for all except six industries related to security, strategic or environmental concerns. At the same time, the number of industries reserved for public sector since 1956 have been reduced from 17 to 4. Industries related to atomic energy, substances specified in the Schedule of the Department of Atomic Energy as well as Railways have remained under the public sector. The government also has decided to offer a part of the shareholdings in the public enterprises to financial institutions, general public and workers. The threshold limits of assets have been scrapped and no industiy requires prior approval for investing in the delicensed sector. They only need to submit a memorandum in the prescribed format.

In the new industrial policy, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has been seen as a supplement to the domestic investment for achieving a higher level of economic development. FDI benefits the domestic industry as well as the consumers by providing technological upgradation, access to global managerial skills and practices, optimum use of natural and human resources, etc. Keeping all this in mind, foreign investment has been liberalized and the government has permitted access to an automatic route for Foreign Direct Investment. The government has also announced changes in the industrial location policies. Industries are discouraged in or very close to large cities due to environmental reasons.

The industrial policy has been liberalized to attract private investor both domestic and multi-nationals. New sectors like, mining, telecommunications, highway construction and management have been thrown open to private companies. Globalization means integrating the economy of the country with the world economy. Under this process, goods and services along with capital, labour and resources can move freely from one nation to another. The thrust of globalisation has been to increase the domestic and external competition through extensive application of market mechanism and facilitating dynamic relationship with the foreign investors and suppliers of technology. In Indian context, this implies:

• opening of the economy to foreign direct investment by providing facilities to foreign companies to invest in different fields of economies activity in India;
• removing restrictions and obstacles to the entry of multi-national companies in India;
• allowing Indian companies to enter into foreign collaboration in India and also encouraging them to set up joint ventures abroad;
• carrying out massive import liberalization programmes by switching over from quantitative restrictions to tariffs in the first place, and then bringing down the level of import duties considerably; and
• instead of a set of export incentives, opting for exchange rate adjustments for promoting export.

A breakup of foreign collaboration approval reveals that the major share went to core, priority sectors while infrastructural sector was untouched. Further, gap between developed and developing states has become wider. Major share of both domestic investment as well as foreign direct investment went to already developed states. Uttar Pradesh, the state with the largest population has only 8 per cent. In spite of several concessions, seven north-eastern states could get less than 1 per cent of the proposed investment. In fact, economically weaker states could not compete with the developed states in open market in attracting industrial investment proposals and hence they are likely to suffer from these processes.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why manufacturing is significant?
Answer:
Manufacturing industries provide employment to a large number of people either directly or indirectly and as well as contribute significantly to the national economy. They provide us with all the manufactured goods for our use.

Question 2.
For which industries market plays an important role for their location.
Answer:
Cotton textiles and petroleum based industries.

Question 3.
Which state has the largest number of cotton mills?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Where and when was the first cotton mill set up?
Answer:
In Mumbai, 1854.

Question 5.
Which is the 2nd most important agro- based industry in India?
Answer:
Sugar industry.

Question 6.
Which state is the largest producer of sugar?
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 7.
What is the contribution of IT industry towards India’s GDP?
Answer:
The IT software and services industry account for almost 2 per cent of India’s GDP.

Question 8.
When was the new Industrial policy undertaken?
Answer:
The new Industrial policy was undertaken in 1991.

Question 9.
How many Major Industrial Region are there?
OR
Name the important industrial regions of India.
Answer:
There are eight major Industrial Regions:

• Mumbai-Pune Region,
• Hugh Region,
• Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region,
• Gujarat Region,
• Chotanagpur Region,
• Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Region,
• Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut Region, and
• Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region.

Question 10.
Chhotanagpur Industrial belt primarily occupies which states?
Answer:
Jharkhand, parts of Odisha and West Bengal.

Question 11.
What is manufacturing?
Answer:
Manufacturing refers to mass production of all/any kinds of identical goods with the use of power, specialized labour and a factory. It transforms raw materials into finished goods of high value. It is done in either by hand or power driven machinery.

Question 12.
Classify industries on the basis of size.
Answer:
On the basis of size industries are of three types:

1. Cottage industries (Household Industries)
2. Medium scale industries
3. Large scale industries

Question 13.
Classify industries on the basis of ownership.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, industries are of three types:

1. Private sector industry
2. Public sector industry
3. Joint sector industry and cooperative sector

Question 14.
Classify industries on the basis of product.

• Basic industry
• Capital-goods industries
• Consumer goods industries
• Intermediate goods industries

Question 15.
Classify industries on the basis of the use of their products.
Answer:
On the basis of the use of their products industries are classified as:

• Basic goods industries
• Capital goods industries
• Intermediate goods industries
• Consumer goods industries.

Question 16.
When and with whose collaboration was Rourkela Steel Plant established?
Answer:
The Rourkela Steel plant was set up in 1959 in the Sundargarh district of Odisha in collaboration with Germany.

Question 17.
When and with whose collaboration was Bhilai Steel Plant established?
Answer:
The Bhilai Steel Plant was established with Russian collaboration in Durg district of Chhattisgarh and started production in 1959.

Question 18.
Which industries are included in traditional industries?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry, cotton industry and sugar industry are considered as traditional industries.

Question 19.
Why are petrochemical industries and IT industry considered as modern industries?
Answer:
These industries are considered as the most modern industries because they make use of latest modern technology machinery and computerized methodology.

Question 20.
Who started the first naphtha based chemical industry?
OR
Name the first Naptha based chemical industries.
Answer:
The National Organic Chemical Industries Limited (NOCIL) established in private sector in 1961, started the first naphtha-based chemical industry in Mumbai.

Question 21.
What was the impact of the policy of dereservation in 1991?
Answer:
The number of industries reserved for public sector since 1956 have been reduced from 17 to 4. Industries related to atomic energy, substances specified in the Schedule of the Department of Atomic Energy as well as Railways have remained under the public sector.

Question 22.
Which sectors have received the highest FDI in India?
Answer:
In India larger parts of this investment have gone to domestic appliances, finance, services, electronics and electrical equipment, and food and dairy products.

Question 23.
Name the raw materials essential for iron and steel industry. Why should they be located near the source of its raw materials?
Answer:
The raw materials essential for Iron and Steel Industry are iron-ore, coking coal, limestone, dolomite, manganese and fire clay. Because all these raw materials are weight losing, therefore, the Iron and Steel industry should be located near the source of raw materials.

Question 24.
Iron and steel industry is only in public sector. Why?
Answer:
Because no investor is willing to invest in the heavy and bulky industries as the capital is huge and benefit is incurred in a long span of time.

Question 25.
What does TISCO stand for?
Answer:
Tata Iron and Steel Company.

Question 26.
What does IISCO stand for?
Answer:
Indian Iron and Steel Company.

Question 27.
Name the new steel plants that were set up in fourth plan period. How are they different from earlier ones?
Answer:
Vizag Steel Plant, Vijaynagar Steel Plant & Salem Steel Plant. Paradip is the latest and new steel plant is under construction in Odisha. They are different from the earlier ones as they are away from the main raw material sources.

Question 28.
Which city is referred to as the petrochemical industry?
Answer:
The city of Mumbai is referred to as the petrochemical industiy.

Question 29.
Name .the important petrochemical centres of India.
Answer:
Important centres include:

• Auraiya (UP)
• Jamnagar, Gandhinagar and Hajira (Gujarat)
• Nagothane, Ratnagiri (Maharashtra)
• Haldia (West Bengal)
• Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

Question 30.
What are polymers made from?
Answer:
Polymers are made from ethylene propylene.

Question 31.
Name the important minor industrial regions of India.
Answer:
Minor industrial regions of India are:

• Ambala-Amritsar
• Saharanpur-Muzaffarnagar-Bijnor
• Indore-Dewas-Ujjain
• Jaipur-Ajmer
• Kolhapur-South Kannada
• Northern Malabar
• Middle Malabar
• Adilabad-Nizamabad
• Allahabad-Varanasi-Mirzapur
• Bhojpur-Munger
• Durg-Raipur
• Bilaspur-Korba
• Brahmaputra valley

Question 32.
Name the important industrial districts of India.
Answer:
Important industrial districts of India are:

• Kanpur
• Agra
• Gwalior
• Lucknow
• Cuttack
• Aligarh
• Purnia
• Bareilly
• Hyderabad
• Nagpur
• Bhopal
• Jalpaiguri
• Gorakhpur
• Kota
• Jabalpur

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the significance of the secondary sector.
Answer:
Secondary sector processes primary products into finished goods of higher value. It provides employment to a large number of people and contributes to national income.

Question 2.
Why are synthetic fibres gaining importance? Name some locations where they are located.
Answer:
Synthetic fibres are widely used in the manufacturing of fabrics because of their inherent strength, durability, washability, and resistance to shrinkage. Industries manufacturing nylon and polyester yarns are located at Kota, Pimpri, Mumbai, Modinagar, Pune, Ujjain, Nagpur and Udhna. Acrylic staple fibre is manufactured at Kota and Vadodara.

Question 3.
What is knowledge based industry? Why is it gaining importance? ‘
Answer:
The advancement in information technology has had a profound influence on the country’s economy. The Information Technology (IT) revolution opened up new possibilities of economic and social transformation. The IT and IT enabled business process outsourcing (ITES-BPO) services continue to be on a robust growth path. Indian software industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing sectors in the economy.

Questions 4.
What is the impact of globalisation in India?
OR
What do you mean by globalisation in Indian context?
Answer:
The impact of globalization in India are:

• Opening of the economy to foreign direct investment by providing facilities to foreign companies to invest in different fields of economic activity in India.
• Removing restrictions and obstacles to the entry of multinational companies in India.
• Allowing Indian companies to enter into foreign collaboration in India and also encouraging them to set up joint venture’s abroad.
• Carrying out massive import liberalization programmes by switching over from quantitative restrictions to tariffs in the first place, and then bringing down the level of import duties considerably.
• Instead of a set of export incentives, opting for exchange rate adjustments for promoting export.

Question 5.
Why there is spatial variation in FDI in India?
Answer:
Major share of both domestic investment as well as foreign direct investment went to already developed states. For example, out of the total proposed investment by the industrial entrepreneurs during 1991-2000 nearly one fourth (23 per cent) was for industrially developed Maharashtra, 17 per cent for Gujarat, 7 per cent for Andhra Pradesh, and about 6 per cent for Tamil Nadu while Uttar Pradesh, the state with the largest population has only 8 per cent. In spite of several concessions, seven north-eastern states could get less than 1 per cent of the proposed investment. In fact, economically weaker states could not compete with the developed states in open market in attracting industrial investment proposals and hence they are likely to suffer from these processes.

Question 6.
How are industrial regions distributed in our country? List the indices used to identity them.
Answer:
Industries are not evenly distributed in the country. They tend to concentrate on certain locations because of the favourable locational factors.
Several indices are used to identify the clustering of industries, important among them are:

• The number of industrial units
• Number of industrial workers
• Quantum of power used for industrial purposes
• Total industrial output, and
• Value added by manufacturing, etc.

Question 7.
Give a brief description of IISCO.
Answer:
IISCO stands for The Indian Iron and Steel Company.

• Factories under it: It sets up its first factory at Hirapur and later on another at Kulti. In 1937, the Steel Corporation of Bengal was constituted in association with IISCO and set up another iron and steel producing unit at Burnpur (West Bengal).
• Present Location: All the three plants under IISCO are located very close to Damodar valley coal fields (Raniganj, Jharia, and Ramgarh).
• Material: Iron ore comes from Singhbhum in Jharkhand. Water is obtained from the Barakar river, a tributary of the Damodar.
• Ownership: Steel production from IISCO fell considerably in 1972-73 and the plants were taken over by the government.

Question 8.
Why are most of sugar mills established in sugarcane producing areas?
OR
Why are the sugarcane industries located within the cane producing areas?
Answer:
Most of sugar mills are established in sugarcane producing areas because:

• Sugarcane is a weight-losing crop. The ratio of sugar’to sugarcane varies between 9 to 12 per cent depending on its variety. Its sucrose content begins to dry during haulage after it has been harvested from the field.
• Better recovery of sugar is dependent upon its being crushed within 24 hours of its harvesting.

Question 9.
Why iron and steel industry is located in peninsular plateau?
Answer:
Iron and steel plant requires raw materials which are weight losing, heavy & bulky therefore its location is influenced by: ‘

• Raw Materials: Iron ore, coal, limestone, dolomite, manganese are weight losing and therefore, industries should be located near the source of raw materials.
• Cost: Industry should be located at place where the cost of assembling and the raw material and distribution of finished product is the lowest. Some steel plants are located near coal fields and iron ore producing areas.
• Transport: All ’ the plants are located on the trunk rail routes which connects them to large urban market.All these conditions are favorable as peninsular India and hence iron and steel is locked there.

Question 10.
What are the factors affecting cotton textile industry?
OR
What favorable conditions are present in India for development of cotton industry?
OR
Give reasons for the development of cotton textile industries in India.
Answer:
The following favorable conditions are present in India for development of cotton industry:

• It is a tropical country and cotton is the most comfortable fabric for a hot and humid climate. So demand is high.
• Large quantity of cotton is grown in India.
• Abundant skilled labour required for this industry is available in this country.
• In some areas the people are producing cotton textiles for generations find transferred the skill from one generation to the other and in the process perfected their skills.

Question 11.
Why did the development of cotton textile industries occur in and around Mumbai?
Answer:
It was very close to the cotton producing areas of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Raw cotton used to be brought to Mumbai port to be transported to England. Therefore, cotton was available in Mumabi city itself. Mumbai was the financial centre and the capital needed to start an industry was available there. Employment opportunities attracted labour in large numbers. The machinery required for a cotton textile mill could be directly imported from England.

Question 12.
Give a brief account of cotton textile industry in India.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has the largest number of cotton mills.
• Coimbatore is the most important centre as approximately half the mills are located there.
• In Karnataka, the cotton textile industry has developed in the cotton producing areas in the north-eastern part of the state.
• In Andhra Pradesh, it is located in Telangana region where most of the mills are spinning mills producing yarn. Most important centres are Hyderabad, Secunderbad, Warangal and Guntur.
• In U.P., Kanpur is the largest centre. The important centres are Modinagar, Hathras, Saharanpur, Lucknow and Agra.
• West Bengal has centres like Howrah, Serampur, Kolkata and Shyarri nagar.

Question 13.
Cotton textile has been facing problem. Discuss.
Answer:
Cotton textiles has been facing tough competition from synthetic cloth due to the following reasons:

• Synthetic fibres’ inherent strength, durability, washability and resistance to shrinkage.
• Old and obsolete machinery are still operating leading to lesser output.
• Irregular power supply.
• Good quality growing areas went to West Pakistan.
• Per unit production is less.

Question 14.
State the importance of sugar industry in India.
Answer:

• It is the second most important agro-based industry in the country.
• It is the largest producer of sugarcane and contributes about 8 per cent of the total sugar production in the world.
• Beside khandsari and gur are also prepared from sugarcane.
• Industry provides employment for more than 4 lakhs persons directly and a large number of farmers indirectly.

Question 15.
What are petrochemical industries?
OR
Define petrochemical industries. Name four sub-groups of the products of these industries.
Answer:
Many items are derived from crude petroleum, which provide materials for many new industries, these are known as petrochemical industries.
Some groups of these industries:

• Polymers
• Synthetic fibres
• Elastomers
• Surfactant intermediate.

Question 16.
Name the three organisations working in petrochemical under the administration control of the department of chemical and petrochemicals.
Answer:

• Indian Petrochemical Corporation Limited (IPCL): It is responsible for the manufacturing and distribution of the various petrochemicals like polymers, chemicals, fibres and fibre intermediates.
• The Petrofils Cooperative Limited (PCL): A joint venture of government of India and Weaver’s Cooperative Society. It produces polyester filament yarn and nylon chips at its two plants located at Vadodara and Naldhari in Gujarat.
• Central Institute of Plastic Engineering and Technology (CIPET) imparts training in petrochemical industries.

Question 17.
What is the major impact of IT revolution in India?
Answer:
The information technology revolution opened up new possibilities of economic and social transformation.

• The IT and IT enabled business process outsourcing (ITES-BPO) services continue to be on a robust growth path.
• Indian software industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing sectors.
• Exports of the Indian software service sector which is approx 30.32% increase from previous year.
• The software industry has surpassed electronic hardware production.
• It provides international quality products.
• A majority of MNC’s operating in the area of information technology have either software development centres or
• A major impact of this growth has been on employment creation, which is almost doubled each year.
• Many software and technology parks have emerged which are training centres for various professions.

Question 18.
Compare between the textile and steel industries.
Answer:
Points of comparison:

• Both act as basic industries.
• Both cater to other industries. Cotton textile caters to hand loom, power loom whereas Iron and steel caters to mini plants, small scale, large scale, medium – and light industries.
• Both export their produces.
• Initially both started in private sector.
• Both are dependent on primary products.

Question 19.
What role do manufacturing industries play in development of an economy?
Answer:
Manufacturing industries provide employment to labour force. By the sale of their output, economy gets momentum. It provides base for the development of primary and tertiary sectors. Therefore, they act as barometer of economic development of a country.

Question 20.
Classify industries on the basis of the nature of manufactured products.
Answer:
On the basis of the nature of the manufactured products industries are of following types:

• Metallurgical industries
• Mechanical engineering industries
• Chemical and allied industries
• Textile industries
• Food processing industries
• Electricity generation
• Electronics
• Communication industries

Question 21.
What do you mean by Foot Loose industries? Give its features.
Answer:
Foot Loose Industries are those industries which are not dependent on any specific raw materials, for example, weight losing and other such thing. They depend on specific component parts which can be obtained anywhere.

• Such industries are generally non polluting.
• They produce in small quantity with small labour force.
• The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.
• They can be located in a wide variety of places.

Question 22.
Name some integrated steel plants of India.
Answer:
Some of the integrated steel plants in India are:

• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)
• Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO)
• Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works Ltd. (VISW)
• Rourkela Steel Plant
• Bhilai Steel Plant
• Durgapur Steel Plant
• Bokaro Steel Plant

Question 23.
Name some other steel plants of India other than integrated steel plants.
Answer:
Other steel plants:

• The Vizag Steel Plant, situated in Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh is the first port-based plant which started operating in 1992.
• The Vijaynagar Steel Plant at Hospet in Karnataka was developed using indigenous technology.
• The Salem Steel Plant in Tamil Nadu was commissioned in 1982.

Question 24.
Name the steel plants of India established in collaboration with a foreign country.
Answer:
The Rourkela Steel Plant was set up in 1959 in the Sundargarh district of Odisha in collaboration with Germany. The Bhilai Steel Plant was established with Russian collaboration in Durg District of Chhattisgarh and started production in 1959. Durgapur Steel Plant, in West Bengal, was set up in collaboration with the government of the United Kingdom and started production in 1962.
Bokaro Steel Plant was set up in 1964 at Bokaro with Russian collaboration

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why most of the iron and steel industries are located in the Chhotanagpur plateau?
Answer:
This region extends over Jharkhand, northern Odisha and western West Bengal and is known for the heavy metallurgical industries.
This region owes its development to the discovery of coal in the Damodar Valley and metallic and non-metallic minerals in Jharkhand and northern Odisha. Proximity of coal, iron ore and other minerals facilitated the location of heavy industries in this region. Six large integrated iron and steel plants at Jamshedpur, Burnpur- Kulti, Durgapur, Bokaro and Rourkela are located within this region.

To meet the power requirement, thermal and hydroelectric plants have been constructed in the Damodar Valley. This region is well connected to the transportation network between the metros of Mumbai and Kolkata and water ways. Water for the plants is easily available from Subarnarekha and it’s tributary. Kolkata port is nearby. Densely populated surrounding regions provide cheap labour and Hugli region provides vast market for its industries. Heavy engineering, machine tools, fertilisers, cement, paper, locomotives and heavy electricals are some of the important industries in this region. Important centres are Ranchi, Dhanbad, Chaibasa, Sindri, Hazaribag, Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Rourkela, Durgapur, Asansol and Dalmianagar.

Question 2.
Explain different phases of development of cotton industry in India.
Answer:
The cotton textile industry is one of the traditional industries of India. In the ancient and the medieval times, it used to be only a cottage industry. India was famous worldwide for the production of muslin, a very fine variety of cotton cloth, calicos, chintz and other different varieties of fine cotton cloth.

Initially, the British did not encourage the development of the indigenous cotton textile industry. They exported raw cotton to their mills in Manchester and Liverpool and brought back instead the finished products to be sold in India. In 1854, the first modern cotton mill was established in Mumbai. Subsequently, two more mills, the Shahpur Mill and the Calico Mill were established in Ahmedabad. By 1947, the number of mills in India went up to 423 but the scenario changed after partition, and this industry suffered a major recession.

After independence India was left with 409 mills and only 29 per cent of the cotton producing areas. After Independence, this industry gradually recovered and eventually flourished. After 1921, with the development of the railway network other cotton textile centres expanded rapidly. In southern India, mills were set up at Coimbatore, Madurai and Bangalore. In Central India, Nagpur, Indore, Solapur and Vadodara became cotton textile centres. Cotton textile mills were set up at Kanpur based on local investment.

Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and most of them produce yarn rather than cloth. Coimbatore has emerged as the most important centre with nearly half the mills located there. Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Tuticorin, Thanjavur, Ramanathapuram and Salem are the other important centres. In Karnataka, the cotton textile industry has developed in the cotton producing areas in the north-eastern part of the state. Davangere, Hubli, Bellary, Mysore and Bangalore are important centres. In Andhra Pradesh, the cotton textile industry is located in the cotton producing Telangana region, where most of the mills are spinning mills producing yarn. The important centres are Hyderabad, Secunderabad, Warangal and Guntur. In Uttar Pradesh, Kanpur is the largest centre. Some of the other important centres are Modinagar, Hathras, Saharanpur, Agra and Lucknow. In West Bengal, the cotton mills are located in the Hugli region.

Question 3.
Explain different phases of development of petrochemical industry in India.
Answer:
Many items are derived from crude petroleum, which provide raw materials for many new industries, these are collectively known as petrochemical industries.
This group of industries is divided into four sub-groups:

• Polymers
• Synthetic fibres
• Elastomers
• Surfactant intermediate

Three organisations are working in the petrochemical sector under the administrative control of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals.

• Indian Petrochemical Corporation Limited (IPCL) is a public sector undertaking. It is responsible for the manufacture and distribution of various petrochemicals like polymers, chemicals, fibres and fibre intermediates.
• Petrofils Cooperative Limited (PCL) is a joint venture of the Government of India and Weaver’s Cooperative Societies.
• Central Institute of Plastic Engineering and Technology (CIPET), involved in imparting training in petrochemical industry.

Polymers are made from ethylene and propylene. These materials are obtained in the process of refining crude oil. Polymers are used as raw materials in the plastic industry. The National Organic Chemicals Industries Limited (NOCIL), established in private sector in 1961, started the first naphtha based chemical industry in Mumbai. The plants located at Mumbai, Barauni, Mettur, Pimpri and Rishra are the major producers of plastic materials. Synthetic fibres are widely used in the manufacturing of fabrics because of their inherent’ strength, durability, washability, and resistance to shrinkage. Industries manufacturing nylon and polyester yarns are located at Kota, Pimpri, Mumbai, Modinagar, Pune, Ujjain, Nagpur and Udhna. Acrylic staple fibre is manufactured at Kota and Vadodara.

Question 4.
Write a detailed note on Hugli industrial area.
Answer:
It is located along the Hugli river.
Extension: This region extends from Bansberia in the north to Birlanagar in the south for a distance of about 100 km. Industries also have developed in Mednipur in the West Kolkata-Howrah from the nucleus of this industrial region.

Development: Historical, geographical, economic and political factors have contributed much to its development. It developed with the opening of river port on Hugli. Kolkata emerged as a leading centre of the country. Later, Kolkata was connected with interior parts by railway lines and road routes. Development of tea plantations in Assam and northern hills of West Bengal, the processing of indigo earlier and jute later coupled with the opening of coalfields of the Damodar Valley and iron ore deposits of the Chotanagpur plateau, contributed to the industrial development of the region.

Labour: Cheap labour available from thickly populated part of Bihar, eastern Uttar Pradesh and Odisha also contributed to its development. Kolkata, being the capital city of British India (1773-1911), attracted the British capital. The establishment of first jute mill at Rishra in 1855 ushered in the era of modern industrial clustering in this region. The major concentration of jute industry is at Haora and Bhatapara. The partition of the country in 1947 adversely affected this industrial region. Cotton textile industry also grew along with jute industry, paper, engineering, textile machinery, electrical, chemical, pharmaceuticals, fertiliser and petrochemical industries have also developed within this region. Factory of the Hindustan Motors Limited at Konnagar and diesel engine factory at Chittaranjan are landmarks of this region.
Location of petroleum refinery at Haldia has facilitated the development of a variety of industries.

Important industrial centres of this region: Kolkata, Haora, Haldia, Serampur, Rishra, Shibpur, Naihati, Kakinara, Shamnagar, Titagarh, Sodepur, Birlanagar, Bansberia, Belgurriah, Triveni, Hugli, Belur, etc.

Question 5.
What were the policies adopted under New Industrial Policy 1991? What were its objectives?
OR
Explain the objectives and measures initiated under new industrial policy announced in 1991.
Answer:
The new Industrial Policy was announced in 1991. Following measures were initiated under this policy:

• Abolition of industrial licensing,
• Free entry to foreign technology,
• Foreign investment policy,
• Access to capital market,
• Open trade,
• Abolition of phased manufacturing programme, and
• Liberalized industrial location progra¬mme.

The major objectives of this policy were as follows:

• Building on the gains already made,
• Correcting the distortions or weaknesses that have crept in,
• Maintaining a sustained growth in productivity and gainful employment and
• Last but not the least attaining inter¬national competitiveness.

Question 6.
Name the major areas where sugar industries are located?
OR
Name the major leading producing areas of sugar in India.
Answer:
Maharashtra has emerged as a leading sugar producing state in the country and produces more than one-third of the total production of the sugar in the country. Uttar Pradesh is the second largest producer of sugar. The sugar factories are concentrated in two belts – the Ganga- Yamuna doab and the Tarai region. The major sugar-producing centres in the Ganga-Yamuna doab are Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Meerut, Ghaziabad, Baghpat and Bulandshahr districts; while Kheri Lakhimpur, Basti, Gonda, Gorakhpur, Bahraich are important sugar producing districts in the Tarai region. In Tamil Nadu, sugar factories are located in Coimbatore, Vellore, Tiruvanamalai, Villupuram and Tiruchchirappalli districts. Belgaum, Bellary, Mandya, Shimoga, Bijapur, and Chitradurg districts are the major producers in Karnataka.

The industry is distributed in the coastal regions, i.e. East Godavari, West Godavari, Vishakhapatnam districts and Nizamabad, and Medak districts of Telangana alongwith Chittoor district of Rayalseema.

The other states which produce sugar are Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. Saran, Champaran, Muzaffarnagar, Siwan, Darbhanga, and Gaya are the important sugarcane producing districts in Bihar.

Question 7.
Distinguish between textile industry & Steel industry.
Answer:

Textile Industry	Steel Industry
(i) It is an agro based industry	(i) It is mineral based industry.
(ii) It employs larger number of people.	(ii) It employs lesser number of people.
(iii) The capital investment is comparatively less. Most of them are under private sector.	(iii) The capital investment is very heavy and the dividends come late. Therefore majority of them are under public sector.
(iv) They are highly decentralized.	(iv) They are mostly centralized and integrated, though mini steel plants are coming up.
(v) It is a consumer and a basic industry.	(v) It is a basic or key industry.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Globalisation has widened the gap between the developed and developing states of India. Justify the statement.
Answer:
It is rightly said that globalisation has widened the gap between the developed and developing states of India.

• Major share of both domestic investment as well as foreign direct investment went to developed states. Example; Out of the total proposed investment by the industrial entrepreneurs during 1991 – 2000, 23% was for Maharashtra, 17% for Gujarat, 7% for Andhra Pradesh, 6% for Tamil Nadu while Uttar Pradesh had only 8%.
• Inspite of several concessions, seven north eastern states could get less than 1% of the proposed investment.
• Economically weaker states could not compete with the developed states in open market in attracting industrial investment proposals.

Question 2.
How does FDI benefit the economy?
Answer:
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has been seen as a supplement to the domestic investment for achieving higher level of economic development. FDI benefits the domestic industry as well as the consumers by providing technological upgradation, access to global managerial skills and practices, optimum use of natural and human resources, etc.

Question 3.
“Iron and Steel industry is called a basic and heavy and industry”. Why? Explain.
Answer:
“Iron and steel industry is called a basic industry due to the following reasons:

• The industry forms a base for all other industries.
• No industry can be imagined that does not make use of iron and steel in one form or the other.
• The industry lays the foundation of rapid development of all other sectors in the economy – agriculture, etc.

It is a heavy industry because of the following reasons:

• Its raw materials are bulky.
• Other minerals used like limestone; manganese, etc. are also bulky.
• Coal used as source of power in blast furnaces is also bulky.
• And finally its finished products are also bulky.

Question 4.
Discuss the various locational advantages of iron and steel industry in Jamshedpur.
Answer:
Jamshedpur has many locational advantages for iron and steel industry:

• Iron ore is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar.
• Coal is obtained from Joda mines in Odisha.
• Water is obtained from Subernarekha and Kharkai rivers.
• Very close to Mumbai – Kolkata railway line and about 240 km away from Kolkata which is the nearest port for the export of steel.
• Coking coal obtained from Jharia and West Bokaro coal fields.

Question 5.
Availability of labour is the biggest cause for development of Hugli industrial region. Justify.
Answer:
Cheap labour available from thickly populated parts of Bihar, eastern Uttar Pradesh and Odisha also contributed to its development. Kolkata, being the capital city of British India (1773-1911), attracted British capital. The establishment of first jute mill at Rishra in 1855 ushered in the era of modern industrial clustering in this region. The major concentration of jute industry is at Haora and Bhatapara. The partition of the country in 1947 adversely affected this industrial region. Cotton textile industry also grew along with jute industry, paper, engineering, textile machinery, electrical, chemical, pharmaceuticals, fertilisers and petrochemical industries have also developed within this region. Factory of the Hindustan Motors Limited at Konnagar and diesel engine factory at Chittaranjan are landmarks of this region. Location of petroleum refinery at Haldia has facilitated the development of a variety of industries.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Iron and steel plants — Bhadravati, Bhilai, Bokaro, Durgapur, Rourkela and Jamshedpur.
Answer:

Question 2.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Cotton textiles centres — Ahmedabad, Surat, Gwalior, Varanasi, Murshidabad, Pune, Nagpur, Solapur and Mysore.
Answer:

Question 3.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Software technology park — Gandhinagar, Srinagar, Mohali, Shimla, Delhi, Noida, Kanpur, Indore, Hyderabad, Bhubaneshwar.
Answer:

Question 4.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Important industrial regions — Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region, Chhotanagpur region, Mumbai-Pune Region, Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region, Gujarat region, Hugli region, Kollam Thiruvananthapuram region, Vishakhapatnam Guntur.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What was the main reason for establishing the first cotton textile mill in Mumbai? (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
It was very close to cotton producing areas.

Question 2.
Name the iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Bhilai steel plant.

Question 3.
Which is the largest sugar producing state of India? (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 4.
Which state of India has the largest number of cotton mills? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Name the two rivers that provide water to Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO). (Delhi 2013)
Answer:

• Subarnarekha
• Kharkai.

Question 6.
“Why is the large integrated steel industry located close to the source of raw material?” (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Because the raw materials such as limestone, dolomite, manganese, etc., for these industries are weight losing and heavy.

Question 7.
Explain one reason for the import of petroleum and its products is large quantities in India. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:

• Production of petroleum and its products is less than requirement in India.
• Demands is increasing due to regular increase in population.
• Rising industrialization
• Better standard of living.

Question 8.
Mention any two factors responsible for the establishment of cotton textile mills in Mumbai. (Delhi 2018)
Answer:
Factors responsible for establishment of cotton textile mills in Mumbai:

• Close proximity to the cotton producing areas of Gujarat and Maharashtra.
• Humid climate
• It was the financial centre and had the capital needed to start an industry.
• Transport facilities
• Cheap and abundant labour
• Port facilities at Mumbai
• Availability of hydro-electricity (Any two)

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Name the three leading cotton textile producing states of India and also state the most important centre of this industry in each of these states. (CBSE 2004, 06)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Western Uttar Pradesh are the three main cotton textile producing states in India.
The three main centers of cotton industry in above states are:

• Tamil Nadu : Madurai, Coimbatore
• Maharashtra : Mumbai
• Uttar Pradesh : Kanpur

Question 2.
Explain the role of ‘Market’ and Transport’ in the location of industries in India. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Markets provide the outlets for manufactured products. Heavy machines, machine tools, heavy chemicals are located near the high demand areas as these are market oriented. Cotton textile industry is generally located in large urban centres. Petroleum refineries are also located near the markets is the transport of crude oil is easier and several products derived from them are used as raw materials in other industries. Transport: Development of any industry is very much depends on good means of transport. All the production is meant for consumption from the fields and factories, the produces is brought to the place from where consumers purchase it. With the result all industries are well linked with roads, railways or seaways main industries are directly liniked with rail routes.

Question 3.
Explain the role of ‘power’ and ‘raw material’ in the location of heavy industries in India. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Power

• It provides the motive force for machines.
• Its supply has to be ensured before the location of any industry.
• Certain industries, like aluminium and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries tend to be located near sources of power.
• Such industries are power intensive and require huge quantum of electricity.

Raw Materials:

• Industries using weight losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw material sources.
• Sugar mills, pulp industries, copper smelting and pig iron industry are located near their raw material sources.
• Most of the iron and steel industries are located either near coal fields or near sources of iron ore.

Question 4.
Explain any three locational factors which helped in the development of ‘Gujarat Industrial Region’. (A.l. 2013)
Answer:

• The region lies between Ahmedabad and Vadodara. Its development is associated with the location of the cotton textile industry.
• This region became an important textile region.
• Located in cotton growing area, this region has double advantage of the proximity of raw materials as well as of market.
• This discovery of oil fields led to the establishment of petrochemical industries around Ankleshwar, Vadodara and Jamnagar.

Question 5.
Study the following diagram and answer the questions that follow: (Delhi 2016)

(i) Identify and name the steel plant shown in this diagram.
(ii) Name the mining fields which supply coal and limestone to this plant.
(iii) Mention the source of water for this plant.
Answer:
(i) Tata Iron and Steel Plant (TISCO).

(ii) Coal comes from Jharia coal fields and limestone comes from Birmitrapur.

(iii) Source of water:

• Subarnarekha River
• Kharkai River

Question 6.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: (A.I. 2017)

Question 6.(i)
Identify and name the steel plant given above. In which State is this plant located?
Answer:
Bhilai Steel plant
State: Chhattisgarh

Question 6.(2)
Which is the main source of power for this steel plant? Which rail route provides transport facilities to this plant ?
Answer:
Main source of power – Korba Thermal power station.
Rail route – Kolkata – Mumbai rail route

Question 6.(3)
What are the major sources of iron-ore and water for this steel plant?
Answer:
Iron ore : Dalli – Rajhara mine.
Water: Tandula tank/dam
Major factors responsible for establishment of Tata Iron & Steel industry in Jamshedpur:

• It lies very close to the Mumbai – Kolkata railway line.
• Kolkata is the nearest port for the export of steel about 240 km away.
• The rivers Subanarekha and Kharkai provide water to the plant.
• Iron ore is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar.
• Coal is brought from Joda mines in Orissa.
• Coking Coal comes from Jharia and West Bokaro coalfields.
• Any other relevant point.
  (Any three points to be explained

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain with examples any five geographical factors that affect localisation of an industry at a particular place in India. (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
Location of industries is influenced by several factors like access to raw materials, water supply, climate, soil, minerals power, market, capital, transport and labour, etc. Some of them are:

• Raw materials: Industries using weight losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are located. Example; most of the iron and steel industries are located either near coalfields (Bokaro, Durgapur, etc.) or near sources of iron ore (Bhadravati, Bhilai, and Rourkela).
• Power: Power provides the motive force for machines, certain industries, like aluminium and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing, industries tend to be located near sources of power because they are power intensive and require huge quantum of electricity.
• Market: Markets provide the outlets for manufactured products. Cotton textile industry uses a non-weight-losing raw material and is generally located in large urban centre, example; Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Surat, etc. Petroleum refineries are also located near the markets as the transport of crude oil. Koyali, Mathura and Barauni refineries are typical examples.
• Transport: Industries are concentrated in Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi and in and around Kolkata. The industries shifted to interior locations, only when railway lines were laid.
• Labour: In India, labour is quite mobile and is available in large numbers due to our large population. Example; cheap labour available from thickly populated part of Bihar, eastern U.P. and Orissa contributed to the development of Hugli Industrial region.

Question 2.
State five features each of Gujarat industrial region and chhotanagpur industrial region. (2004, 06, 08, 12, 13, 14)
Answer:
The five features of the following industrial regions are:
Gujarat Industrial Region:

• The nucleus of this region lies between Ahmadabad and Vadodara, though this region extends upto Valsad and Surat in the South.
• The development of this industrial region is mainly due to the cotton textile industry since 1860.
• After the decline of cotton textile from the Mumbai region the region has double advantage of the proximity of raw material and market.
• The discovery of oilfields led to the development of a variety of petrochemical industries in Ankleshwar, Vadodara and Jamnagar.
• Petroleum refinery at Koyali provided raw materials to a host of petrochemical industries.

Chotanagpur Industrial Region: This industrial regions extends over Jharkhand, northern Orissa, and western West-Bengal.

• This region owes its development to the discovery of coal in the Damodar valley and metallic nonmetallic minerals in Jharkhand and northern Orissa.
• Jamshedpur, Burnpur-Kulti, Durgapur, Bokaro and Rourkela are the prominent integrated iron and steel industry region.
• Power requirement is fulfilled by thermal and hydro electric plants constructed on the Damodar river.
• The densely surrounding region of Bihar, West Bengal, and Orissa provide unskilled and skilled labour force on large scale.

Question 3.
Why do large scale industries choose different locations? Explain any four factors which influence the industrial location. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Large scale industries choose different locations due to:
Industries maximize profits by reducing costs. Therefore, industries should be located at points where cost of production is lowest.
Factors influencing industrial location:

• Supply of raw materials
• Access to market
• Availability of labour
• Sources of energy
• Access to transportation and communication
  (Any four factors to be explained)

Question 4.
Mention any four major objectives of the New Industrial Policy, 1991 of India. Describe the role of globalisation in achieving these objectives. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Major objectives of the New Industrial Policy 1991

• To build on the gains already made
• Correct the distortions or weakness that have crept in.
• Maintain a sustained growth in productivity.
• Gainful employment and attain international competitiveness.

Role of Globalisation:

• Increase in Foreign Investment,
• Availability of Foreign Technology,
• Open Trade Policy,
• International competition for better products,
  (Any three points to be explained)

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the following from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
In which one of the following States are the major oil fields located?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 1.(ii)
At which one of the following places was the first atomic power station started?
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Narora
(c) Rana Pratap Sagar
(d) Tarapur
Answer:
(d) Tarapur

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following minerals is known as brown diamond?
(a) Iron
(b) Lignite
(c) Manganese
(d) Mica
Answer:
(b) Lignite

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following is non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Hydel
(b) Solar
(c) Thermal
(d) Wind power
Answer:
(c) Thermal

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Give an account of the distribution of mica in India.
Answer:
Mica in India is produced in Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan followed by Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh. In Jharkhand high quality mica is obtained in a belt extending over a distance of about 150 km, in length and about 22 km, in width in lower Hazaribagh plateau. In Andhra Pradesh. Nellore district produces the best quality mica. In Rajasthan mica belt extends for about 320 kms from Jaipur to Bhilwara and around Udaipur. Mica deposits also occur in Mysore and Hasan districts of Karnataka, Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, Madurai and Kannyakumari in Tamil Nadu, Alleppey in Kerala, Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Purulia and Bankura in West Bengal.

Question 2.(ii)
What is nuclear power? Mention the important nuclear power stations in India.
Answer:
Nuclear power is the power that is obtained by the energy released from nuclear fission that is splitting of nucleus of radioactive minerals like Uranium and Thorium. The energy released from the nuclear fission is used to heat water, the steam released from it is used to rotate a turbine which generates electricity. The important nuclear power projects are Tarapur (Maharashtra), (Rajasthan), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka), Rawatbhata near Kota and Kakarapara (Gujarat).

Question 2.(iii)
Name non-ferrous metal. Discuss their spatial distribution.
Answer:
India is poorly endowed with non-ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite and copper. Bauxite: Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country. Bauxite is the ore for Aluminium. Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers.

The other two areas which have been increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput. The patlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits. Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other major producers. Bhavanagar, Jamnagar in Gujarat have the major deposits. Chhattisgarh has bauxite deposits in Amarkantak plateau while Katni-Jabalpur area and Balaghat in M.P. have important deposits of bauxite. Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune and Kolhapur in Maharashtra are important producers. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa are minor producers of bauxite Copper:

The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan. It is imperative for electrical industry. Minor producers of Copper are Agnigundala in Guntur District (Andhra Pradesh), Chitradurg and Hasan districts (Karnataka) and South Arcot district (Tamil Nadu).

Question 2.(iv)
What are non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Non conventional sources of energy are those energy which have been recently put to use for commercial purpose. They are generally renewable and non polluting sources of energy. They have initial high cost of installation whereas their long time running cost is low and also they are environment friendly. Eg. Soar energy, wind energy, tidal and wave energy, geothermal energy and bioenergy.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Write a detailed note on the Petroleum resources of India.
Answer:
Crude petroleum consists of hydrocarbons of liquid and gaseous states varying in chemical composition, colour and specific gravity. It is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft. Its numerous by-products are processed in petrochemical industries.

Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period. Oil exploration and production was systematically taken up after the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was set up in 1956. Till then, the Digboi in Assam was the only oil producing region but the scenario has changed after 1956. In recent years, new oil deposits have been found at the extreme western and eastern parts of the country. In Assam, Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran are important oil producing areas. The major oil fields of Gujarat are Ankaleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba and Lunej. Mumbai High which lies 160 km off Mumbai was discovered in 1973 and production commenced in 1976. Oil and natural gas have been found in exploratory wells in Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basin on the east coast. According to a newspaper report (The Hindu, 05.09.2006) the Oil and Natural Gas Commission has found potential zones of natural gas reserves in Ramanathapuram district. The survey is still in the initial stages. The exact quantity of gas reserves will be known only after the completion of the survey. But the results are encouraging. Oil extracted from the wells is crude oil and contains many impurities. It cannot be used directly. It needs to be refined. There are two types of refineries in India:
(a) field based and
(b) market based. Digboi is an example of field based and Barauni is an example of market based refinery. There are 18 refineries in India.

Question 3.(ii)
Write an essay on hydel power in India.
Answer:
Hydel power is a renewable energy resource because it uses the Earth’s water cycle to generate electricity. Water evaporates from the Earth’s surface, forms clouds, precipitates back to earth, and flows toward the ocean. The movement of water as it flows downstream creates kinetic energy that can be converted into electricity. 2700 TWH is generated every year. Out of the total power generation installed capacity in India of 1,76,990 MW (June, 2011), hydel power contributes about 21.5%, i.e. 38,106 MW.

A capacity addition of 78,700 MW is envisaged from different conventional sources during 2007-2012 (the 11th Plan), which includes 15,627 MW from large hydro projects. In addition to this, a capacity addition of 1400 MW was envisaged from small hydro up to 25 MW station capacity. The total hydroelectric power potential in the country is assessed at about 150,000 MW, equivalent to 84,000 MW at 60% load factor. The potential of small hydro power projects is estimated at about 15,000 MW.

Technology: A hydroelectric power plant consists of a high dam that is built across a large river to create a reservoir, and a station where the process of energy conversion to electricity takes place. The first step in the generation of energy in a hydro power plant is the collection of run-off of seasonal rain and snow in lakes, streams and rivers, during the hydrological cycle. The run-off flows to dams downstream. The water falls through a dam, into the hydropower plant and turns a large wheel called a turbine.

The turbine converts the energy of falling water into mechanical energy to drive the generator. After this process has taken place electricity is transferred to the communities through transmission lines and the water is released back into the lakes, streams or rivers. This is entirely not harmful, because no pollutants are added to the water while it flows through the hydro power plant.

Potential in India: India is blessed with immense amount of hydro-electric potential and ranks 5th in terms of exploitable hydro-potential on global scenario. As per assessment made by CEA, India is endowed with economically exploitable hydro-power potential to the tune of 148700 MW of installed capacity. The basinwise assessed potential is as under:

Basin/rivers Probable	Installed Capacity (MW)
Indus Basin	33,832
Ganga Basin	20,711
Central Indian River system	4,152
Western Flowing Rivers of southern India	9,430
Eastern Flowing Rivers of southern India	14,511
Brahmaputra Basin	66,065
Total	1,48,701

In addition, 56 number of pumped storage projects have also been identified with probable installed capacity of 94000 MW. In addition to this, hydro-potential from small, mini and micro schemes has been estimated as 6782 MW from 1512 sites. Thus, in totality India is endowed with hydro-potential of about 250000 MW.
Installed Capacity: The total installed capacity of India is 36878 MW

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define minerals.
Answer:
A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.

Question 2.
Give examples of non metallic minerals.
Answer:
Fossil fuels, mica, limestone, graphite etc.

Question 3.
Name ferrous minerals.
Answer:
All the minerals which contain iron come under this category. Like – Iron ore, manganese, chromite etc.

Question 4.
What are the main types of iron found in our country?
Answer:
Haematite and Magnetite.

Question 5.
Which state is the leading producer of manganese?
Answer:
Odisha is the leading producer of manganese.

Question 6.
Name the manganese fields of Karnataka.
Answer:
Karnataka is a major producer of manganese and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumkur.

Question 7.
What are the uses of mica?
Answer:
Used in electrical and electronic industries and also as an insulator.

Question 8.
Which is the ore for aluminium? Which state is the largest producer?
Answer:
Bauxite is the ore for aluminium. Odisha is the largest producer.

Question 9.
Where is copper found in India?
Answer:
Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan. Minor deposits in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 10.
What are canaries used for?
Answer:
Singareni collieries, the country’s premier coal production company, still uses canaries to detect the presence of deadly carbon monoxide in underground mines.

Question 11.
Which are the two top coalfields of India?
Answer:
Jharia and Raniganj.

Question 12.
What are the uses of petroleum?
Answer:
It is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft. Its numerous by-products are processed in petrochemical industries such a fertiliser, synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.

Question 13.
Which mineral is referred to as liquid gold? why?
Answer:
Petroleum is referred to as liquid gold because of its scarcity and diversified uses.

Question 14.
Which agency looks after the transport and marketing of natural gas? When was it set up?
Answer:
The Gas Authority of India Limited was set up in 1984 as a public sector undertaking to look after the transport and marketing of natural gas.

Question 15.
How is solar energy generated?
Answer:
Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are photovoltaics and solar thermal technology.

Question 16.
Name the sources of non conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Solar, wind, bio, tidal and wave, geo thermal.

Question 17.
Name the states with high potential for wind energy.
Answer:
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka have favourable conditions to develop wind energy.

Question 18.
Why is India endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources?
Answer:
India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources due to its varied geological structure. Bulk of the valuable minerals are products of pre-palaezoic age and are mainly associated with metamorphic and igneous rocks of the peninsular India.

Question 19.
Why do we need minerals for economic development?
Answer:
Industrial development of a country depends on availability of minerals and economic development depends on industrial development. Therefore, we need minerals for economic development.

Question 20.
How are minerals classified?
Answer:
Minerals are classified on the basis of their physical and chemical properties.

• Metallic minerals
• Non-metallic minerals.

Question 21.
Name the area lacking natural resources.
Answer:
The vast alluvial plain tract of north India is devoid of minerals of economic use.

Question 22.
There is inverse relationship between quantity and quality of minerals. Explain the statement
Answer:
It means that good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals.

Question 23.
Where are majority of minerals found in India?
Answer:
Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.

Question 24.
In which of the river valleys important coal reserves are found?
Answer:
Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari.

Question 25.
Give the distribution of bauxite ore.
Answer:
Bauxite is produced in the following states.

• Odisha is the largest producer.
• Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers.
• Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, M.P. and Maharashtra.
• Balaghat in M.P.

Question 26.
Name the areas where natural gas is found.
Answer:
Natural gas is found in:

• Eastern Coast (Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Adhra Pradesh)
• Tripura
• Rajasthan
• Gujarat
• Maharashtra

Question 27.
Name the nuclear power plant affected by tsunami which has recently been resumed.
Answer:
Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu.

Question 28.
Where are the richest monazite deposits found?
Answer:
Monazite reserves are found in Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala, Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.

Question 29.
When was the first Atomic Energy Commission established and where?
Answer:
Atomic Energy Commission was established in 1948; while the Atomic Energy Institute at Trombay was established in 1954, which was renamed as the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre in 1967.

Question 30.
Name the important features of non- conventional energy sources.
Answer:
Important features of non-conventional energy sources are:

• Equitable distribution
• Environment friendly
• More sustained eco-friendly and cheaper after initial cost is taken care of.

Question 31.
Solar energy is the hope of future. Discuss.
Answer:
Solar energy is the hope of future because it is:

• Cost competitive
• Environment friendly

Question 32.
What are the advantages of bio-energy?
Answer:

• Enhance self-reliance
• Reduce environmental pollution
• Reduce pressure on fuel wood
• Conversion of municipal waste into energy.

Question 33.
Why do we need to conserve resources?
Answer:

• They are limited in number
• Exhaustible
• More time to replenish
• For sustainable development

Question 34.
Write two important uses of coal.
Answer:

• Generation of thermal power
• Smelting of iron ore for steel

Question 35.
When was the first geo-thermal energy usage attempt made? Is there any geo-thermal plant in India?
OR
Where was the first underground heat tapped?
Answer:
The first successful (1890) attempt to tap the underground heat was made in the city of Boise, Idaho (U.S.A.), where a hot water pipe network was built to give heat to the surrounding buildings. This plant is still working. In India, a geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 36.
Name one bio-energy effort made by India.
Answer:
One bio-energy project converting municipal waste into energy is situated at Okhla in Delhi

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of the distribution of bauxite in India. .
Answer:
Bauxite is used in manufacturing of aluminium. It is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.

Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Ralahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers. The other two areas which have been increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput. The patlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits.

Bhavanagar, Jamnagar in Gujarat have the major deposits. Chhattisgarh has bauxite deposits in Amarkantak plateau while Katni-Jabalpur area and Balaghat in M.P. have important deposits of bauxite.

Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune and Kolhapur in Maharashtra are important producers. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa are minor producers of bauxite.

Question 2.
What are the uses of coal? Where is it found in India?
Answer:
Coal is one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and smelting of iron ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits. About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking grade. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley.

They lie in Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt and the important coal fields in this region are Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, Karanpura. Jharia is the largest coal field followed by Raniganj. Godavari, Mahanadi and Sone river valleys also have coal deposits.

The most important coal mining centres are Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Talcher and Rampur in Odisha, Chanda-Wardha, Kamptee and Bander in Maharashtra and Singareni in Telangana and Pandur in Andhra Pradesh.

Tertiary coals occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland. It is extracted from Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong and Langrin (Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur and Nazira in upper Assam, Namchik – Namphuk (Arunachal Pradesh) ai d Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir). Besides, the brown coal or lignite occur in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Pondicherry, Gujarat and Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
Which are the prospective areas of natural gases in India?
Answer:
Natural gas is obtained alongwith oil in all the oil fields but exclusive reserves have been located along the eastern coast as well as (Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh), Tripura, Rajasthan and off¬shore wells in Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 4.
List the major nuclear power stations along with the states.
Answer:
The important nuclear power projects are Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rawatbhata near Kota (Rajasthan), Kalpakkam(Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka) and Kakarapara (Gujarat).

Question 5.
What are the advantages of solar energy?
Answer:
Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages over all other non¬renewable energy sources. It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct. Solar energy is 7 per cent more effective than coal or oil based plants and 10 per cent more effective than nuclear plants. It is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

Question 6.
How is geothermal energy tapped?
OR
What is the source of geothermal energy?
Answer:
When the magma from the interior of earth, comes out on the surface, tremendous heat is released. This heat energy can successfully be tapped and converted to electrical energy. Apart from this, the hot water that gushes out through the geyser wells is also used in the generation of thermal energy. It is popularly known as Geothermal energy. This energy is now considered to be one of the key energy sources which can be developed as an alternate source. The hot springs and geysers are being used since medieval period.

Question 7.
Name the agencies involved in exploration of minerals.
Answer:
Geological Survey of India (GSI), Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC), Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd. (MECL), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM), Bharat Gold Mines Ltd. (BGML), Hindustan Copper Ltd. (HCL), National Aluminium Company Ltd. (NALCO) and the Departments of Mining and Geology undertake systematic surveying, prospecting and exploration for minerals in various states.

Question 8.
Where are majority of petroleum reserves found?
Answer:
Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai High, i.e. off-shore region in the Arabian Sea. New reserves have been located in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins.

Question 9.
Write the uses of petroleum.
Answer:
Uses of petroleum are as follows:

• Essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircrafts.
• By-products are processed in petro chemical industries such as fertilisers, synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants wax, soap and cosmeti.

Question 10.
Give the distribution of petroleum reserves in India.
Answer:

• Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period.
• Before 1956, Digboi in Assam was the only oil producing region. But now in Assam, Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran are important. Oilfields of Gujarat are Ankleshwar, Mehsana, etc.
• Mumbai High which lies 160 km off Mumbai was discovered in 1973.
• Natural gas have been found in exploratory wells in Krishna-Godavari a!nd Kaveri basin on the east coast.

Question 11.
Name the important belts of mineral reserves in India.
Answer:.
Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India.

• The North-Eastern Plateau Region: Chotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh.
• The South-Western Plateau Region: Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
• The North-Western Region: Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat

Question 12.
Name the minerals which are found in South-Western plateau region belt of India.
Answer:
This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone. This belt packs in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite. Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.

Question 13.
Write the uses and distribution of mica.
Answer:
Uses:

• Di-electric property
• Voltage resistant distribution Distribution: Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan followed by Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, M.P. and Nellore district have the best quality mica.

Question 14.
What are the features of minerals?
Answer:
Minerals have certain features:

• They are either organic like fossil fuels or inorganic like mica, limestone, etc.
• There is an inverse relationship iri quality and quantity of minerals i.e., good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals.
• They contain either iron like iron ore or don’t have iron content like copper, bauxite, etc.
• These minerals take long time to develop geologically and they cannot be replenished immediately at the time of need.
• All minerals are exhaustible over time. None of the minerals is a renewable source but many of them can be recycled and re-used.

Question 15.
Mention the uses of manganese and its producing states.
Answer:
Uses:

• Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore.
• It is also used for manufacturing ferro alloys.

Manganese Producing states:

• Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system.
• Odisha is the leading producer of manganese. Here major mines are located in the cefttral part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir.
• Karnataka is an another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Bellary, Belgaum, North Canara, Chikmagalur, Shimoga, Chitradurg and Tumkur.
• Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts.
• Andhra Pradesh, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to develop bio-energy in India?
Answer:
Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion. It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking.
Necessity for India:

• It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.
• This will improve economic life of rural areas in developing countries.
• It will reduce environmental pollution.
• It will enhance self-reliance.
• It will reduce pressure on fuel wood.

Question 17.
Classify minerals based on chemical and physical properties. Explain them.
Answer:
On the basis of chemical and physical properties, minerals may be grouped under two main categories of metallics and non-metallics. Metallic minerals are the sources of metals. Iron ore, copper, gold produce metal and are included in this category. Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral fuels which are derived from the buried animal and plant life such as coal and petroleum. Other type of non-metallic minerals are inorganic in origin such as mica, limestone and graphite, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is conservation of resources essential? Suggest steps to conserve minerals.
Answer:
In order to achieve economic development with least environmental impact, the goals of sustainable development must be kept in mind in order to protect the future generations. There is an urgent need to conserve the resources.

• The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are inexhaustible resource. These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources.
• In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is specially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meagre.
• Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also reduce their consumption.
• Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced, so that the existing reserve may be used for a longer period.

Question 2.
Describe the development of nuclear energy in India and challenges in its growth.
Answer:
Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times.

• Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium.
• Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks. These are known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt. It is also found in Udaipur, Alwar and Jhunjhunu districts of Rajasthan, Durg district of Chhattisgarh, Bhandara district of Maharashtra and Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
• Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and lignite in the sands of beach along the coasts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• World’s richest monazite deposits occur in Palakkad and Kollam districts ofKerala, near Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.

Question 3.
Write a note on the three belts of mineral distribution.
Answer:
Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India. These belts are:

• The North-Eastern Plateau Region: This belt covers Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh. It has variety of minerals—iron ore, coal, manganese, bauxite, mica.
• The South-Western Plateau Region: This belt extends from Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. It is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone. This belt lacks in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite. Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.
• The North-Western Region: This belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat and minerals are associated with Dharwar system of rocks. Copper, zinc have been major minerals. Rajasthan is rich in building stones i.e. sandstone, granite, marble. Gypsum and Fuller’s earth deposits are also extensive. Dolomite and limestone provide raw materials for cement industiy. Gujarat is known for its petroleum deposits. Gujarat and Rajasthan have rich sources of salt. The Himalayan belt: It is another mineral belt where copper, lead, zinc, cobalt and tungsten are known to occur. Assam valley has mineral oil deposits.Oil resources are also found in off-shore- areas near Mumbai Coast (Mumbai High).

Question 4.
Where does India stand as far as iron resource is concerned? Write a note on its distribution.
Answer:
India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. About 95 per cent of total reserves of iron ore is located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
In Odisha, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar. The important mines are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu (Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh).

Jharkhand has some of the oldest iron ore mines and most of the iron and steel plants are located around them. Most of the important mines such as Noamundi and Gua are located in Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts. This
belt further extends to Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila. Dalli, and Rajhara in Durg are the important mines of iron ore in the country.
In Karnataka, iron ore deposits occur in Sandur-Hospet area of Ballari district, Baba Budan hills and Kudremukh in Chikkamagaluru district and parts of Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru districts.

The districts of Chandrapur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Karimnagar and Warangal district of Telangana, Kurnool, Cuddapah and Anantapur districts of Andhra Pradesh, Salem and Nilgiris districts of Tamil Nadu are other iron mining regions. Goa has also emerged as an important producer of iron ore.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Differentiates

Question 1.
Distinguish between conventional & non conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

Conventional energy	Non Conventional energy
(i) This energy is in use for a long period of time.	(i) These sources have been recently introduced on a commercial scale.
(ii) Fossil fuel sources, such as coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear energy are the main sources.	(ii) Solar, wind, hydro, geothermal and biomass are the main sources.
(iii) These are exhaustible raw materials	(iii) These are sustainable energy resources- which are inexhaustible sources of energy.
(iv) These are concentrated in particular locations and are limited.	(iv) These energy sources are more equitably distributed and are abundant in nature.
(v) These sources cause pollution and harm the environment.	(v) They are environmental friendly. They provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of.
(vi) Both the construction and running cost is high.	(vi) Initial cost is high but the running cost is low.

Question 2.
Differentiate between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals.
Answer:

Basis	Ferrous Minerals	Non-ferrous Minerals
Meaning	Ferrous mineral refers to iron. All those minerals which have iron content are called ferrous minerals.	Those minerals which do not have iron content are non-ferrous.
Example	Iron ore itself, manganese, chromite, etc.	Copper, bauxite, iron, gold, etc.

Question 3.
Differentiate the coal on the basis of geological ages.
Answer:

Tertiary Deposits	Gondwana Deposits
(a) 55 million years of formation (b) It is found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland.	(a) 200 million years old. (b) It is located in Damador Valley and lie in Jharkhand, Bengal coal belt.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Nuclear energy is the hope of future in India. Give a few points.
Answer:
Nuclear energy is the hope of future in India. It is justified because:

• India is deficient in mineral oil and its ‘ coal reserves would also exhaust soon.
• India has not been able to develop the potential of hydel power to such extent that it may depend on it fully because of some constraints.
• Technical know-how to harness nuclear energy is available.
• This power can play a complementary role in industrial and agricultural development in India.
• Availability of sufficient reserves of nuclear minerals like uranium and thorium.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Mineral Deposits (Ferrous) — Balaghat, Nagpur, Durg, Sundergarh, Kendujhar, Mayurbhanj, Ratnagiri, Bailadila, Bellary, Shimoga
Answer:

Question 2.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Non-ferrous Minerals — Khetri, Udaipur, Katni, Amarkantak, Hazaribagh, Bilaspur, Singhbhum, Koraput.
Answer:

Question 3.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Coal Producing States — Bokaro, Jharia, Korba, Singareni, Talcher, Neyveli, Raniganj
Answer:

Question 4.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Oil Refineries — Bhatinda, Panipat, Mathura, Barauni, Guwahati, Jamnagar, Mangaluru, Haldia, Tatipaka.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the place of Maharashtra, where an atomic power station is located. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Tarapur.

Question 2.
Name the place of Himachal Pradesh where a geothermal energy plant is located. (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Manikaran.

Question 3.
Classify minerals on the basis of chemical and physical properties. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Classification of minerals:

• Metallic
• Non-metallic

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Distinguish between thermal electricity and hydro-electricity by stating three points. (CBSE 2006, 15)
Answer:
Thermal electricity:

• Electricity which is produced by fossil fuel as coal, petroleum and natural gas.
• The source of generation of thermal power is available in sizeable amount.
• The thermal electricity plant has an adverse impact on the environment.

Hydro-electricity:

• Electricity which is produced by water.
• The source of generation of hydro¬electricity are renewable and abundant in size.
• The hydro-electricity plant is environment friendly.

Question 2.
Give two advantages of wind energy. Mention four states of India having favourable conditions for the development of wind energy. (CBSE 2008,13)
Answer:
Two advantages:

• Wind energy is absolutely pollution free, inexhaustible sources of energy.
• The kinetic energy of wind, through turbines is converted into electric energy.

Four states of India having favorable condition of wind energy:

• Rajasthan
• Gujarat
• Maharashtra and
• Karnataka & Tamil-Nadu.

Question 3.
Electricity is one of the greatest inventions of all times. It is mostly generated by using coal, natural gas and petroleum, which are exhaustable resources. Can you imagine the human society without electricity? This may happen in future, when all energy resources will be exhausted. Explain the values that can change this possible darkness scenario. (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
Mineral fuels like coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear energy are the conventional sources of energy. They are exhaustible. Sustainable energy resources are renewable. These resources can help us in future after taking great care of these resources.
Even then we should kept in mind certain thing to avoid such situation:

• Creating awareness among the masses about sustainable sources of energy.
• To develop sustainable sources of energy.
• Maximum use of renewable energy resources such as solar, wind, biomass and hydro electricity.
• Optimum use of energy resources and minimum wastage.
• Alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal etc. are to be developed.

Question 3.
“The promotion of the use of non- conventional sources of energy in India is the need of the hour.” Support the statement. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:

• Non-conventional energy sources are highly valuable.
• They are the renewable energy sources like solar, wind, hydro, geothermal and biomass.
• These energy sources are more equally distributed.
• They are environmental friendly.
• Non-conventional energy sources will provide more sustained energy.
• They are also cheaper energy sources after the initial cost is taken care of.

Question 4.
Explain the significance of bio-energy to human kind in India. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:

• Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion.
• It can be converted into electrical enegy, heat energy or gas for cooking.
• It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.
• This will improve economic life of rural areas in the country.
• It reduces environment pollution, enhance self-reliance and reduce pressure on fuel wood.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which are the two main ferrous minerals found in India? Describe four characteristics of each. (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Iron ore and Manganese are the two main ferrous minerals found in India. Characteristics of iron ore:

• Haematite and magnetite are the two main types of iron ore found in our countiy.
• Due to its superior quality, it has great demand in international market.
• It occurs in close proximity to the coal fields.
• It provides a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries. Characteristics of Manganeses:
• It is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore.
• It is used for manufacturing ferro alloys,
• It is mainly associated with Dharwar system.
• It is used in making glass and steel.

Question 2.
Name five sources of non-conventional energy in India and also state one potential area of each source of non- conventional energy. (CBSE 2008, 13)
Answer:
Light from sun, tidal waves, winds, biogas and geothermal energy are non- conventional sources of energy. The non- conventional sources are cheap and can be tapped easily. They are pollution free as they do not have smoke or ash when used. They have no environmental hazards,

• Solar Energy: India is a tropical country so sunlight is abundantly available in all the parts of country except north¬eastern India. Solar energy is used for cooking, water heating and space heating. Solar cooker water pumps, road lights, telephone etc. are being operated by solar energy.
• Wind Energy: Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Odisha are using wind energy. Effort is being made to develop wind generators, wind mills, battery charging system.
• Geothermal Energy: Development activities related to a cold storage unit and 5kw power plant both based on geothermal energy at Manikaram (HP) are in full progress.
• Biogas: It is most important renewable sources of energy in rural areas. As by-product a biogas plant produces enriched the fertilizer. It is used as cooking fuel and also used for lighting and power generation.
• Tidal Energy: Oceanic tide can be used to generate electricity food gate dams are built across inlets. During high tide water flows into the inlets and gate trapped, when the gate is closed. Gulf of Kachchh provides ideal condition for utilizing tidal energy.

Question 3.
‘The non-conventional sources of energy will provide more sustained, eco-friendly and cheaper energy if the initial cost is taken care of.” Examine the statement. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy:

• Non-conventional energy sources are solar, wind, tidal, geothermal and biomass. All these sources are sustainable.
• These are more equitably distributed.
• They are eco-friendly.
• In the long run they are cost effective.
• Wind energy like other non-conventional sources of energy is absolutely pollution free.
• Ocean currents are store house of infinite energy.
• Bio-energy is also a potential source of energy. It reduces pressure on fuel wood and saves forests as well.
• Geothermal energy can successfully be tapped, converted to electrical energy and can be developed as an effective source of energy.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 2 Data Processing

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1(i).
The measure of central tendency that does not get affected by extreme values
(a) Mean
(b) Mean and mode
(c) Mode
(d) Median
Answer:
(d) Median

Question 1(ii).
The measure of central tendency always coinciding with the hump of any distribution is:
(a) Median
(b) Median and Mode
(c) Mean
(d) Mode
Answer:
(b) Median and Mode

Question 1(iii).
A scatter plot represents negative correlation if the plotted values run from:
(a) Upper left to lower right
(b) Lower left to upper right
(c) Left to right
(d) Upper right to lower left
Answer:
(a) Upper left to lower right

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
Define the mean.
Answer:
The mean is the value which is derived by summing all the values and dividing it by the number of observations.

Question 2(ii).
What are the advantages of using mode?
Answer:
Mode is the maximum occurrence or frequency at a particular point or value. The biggest advantage of mode is that it is not affected by extreme values. It can be determined even for open ended series.

Question 2(iii).
What is dispersion?
Answer:
The term, ‘dispersion’, refers to the scattering of scores about the measure of central tendency. It is used to measure the extent to which individual items or numerical data tend to vary or spread about an average value. Thus, to get a better picture of a distribution, we need to use a measure of central tendency and of dispersion or variability.

Question 2(iv).
Define correlation.
Answer:
Correlation is basically a measure of relationship between two or more sets of data. It serves a very useful purpose.

Question 2(v).
What is perfect correlation?
Answer:
Perfect correlation means that there is proportional relationship between two variables. If on doubling x, the value of y also gets doubled, it is perfect positive correlation. On the other hand, if on doubling the variable x, the value of y gets halved, it is called perfect negative correlation.

Question 2(vi).
What is the maximum extent of correlation?
Answer:
The value of correlation lies between -1 and +1. Closer it is to zero, weaker is the correlation; closer it is towards ±1, stronger is the correlation. Symbolically -1≤ r ≤ +1.

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words.

Question 3(i).
Explain relative positions of mean, median and mode in a normal distribution and skewed distribution with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
(a) Normal Curve: In this curve, highest frequency is at the centre and both tails on the left and right hand side are in identical fashion. It is a unimodal curve in which mean, median and mode are equal. It is also known as a bell¬shaped or symmetrical curve. It is shown below:

(b) Positively Skewed Curve: It is a symmetrical curve which has a tail on the right hand side of the graph and frequencies are more for the lower values of the data. These histograms have the curve on the left side of the distribution. If the right tail is longer, the mass of the distribution is concentrated on the left. It has relatively few low values. It is shown below:

(c) Negatively Skewed Curve: It is a symmetrical curve which has a tail on the left hand side of the graph and frequencies are more for the higher values of the data. The left tail is longer, the mass of the distribution is concentrated on the right of the figure. It has relatively few low values. The distribution is said to be left-skewed. It is shown below:

Question 3(ii).
Comment on the applicability of mean, median and mode (Hint: from their merits and demerits)
Answer:
Mean:

• It is the simplest among all the measures of central tendency.
• It is based on all the items in a series. Hence, it is a representative value of different items.
• It is a value. It has no scope for estimated values.
• It is a stable form of central tendency.
• It can be used for comparison.

Median:

• Median is not affected by the extreme values of the series.
• For finding median, only the middle values and their units are sufficient.
• Median can also be determined through the graphic representation of data.
• Median value is always certain in a series.
• Median value is a real value.

Mode:

• Mode is a very simple measure of central tendency.
• It is less affected by extreme and marginal values.
• Mode is the best representation of the series.
• It can also be determined graphically.

Question 3(iii).
Explain the process of computing Standard Deviation with the help of an imaginary example.
Answer:
Standard deviation (SD) is the most widely used measure of dispersion. It is defined as the square root of the average of squares of deviations. It is always calculated around the mean. The standard deviation is the most stable measure of variability and is used in so many other statistical operations. The Greek character a denotes it.
Steps:

• To obtain SD, deviation of each score from the mean (x) is first squared (x²).
• It makes all negative signs of deviations positive. It saves SD from the major criticism of mean deviation which uses modulus x. Then, all of the squared deviations are summed -x²
• (care should be taken that these are not summed first and then squared).
• This sum of the squared deviations (x²) is divided by the number of cases and then the square root is taken. Therefore, Standard Deviation is defined as the root mean square deviation.

Calculate the standard deviation for the following distribution:

Solution:
The method of obtaining SD for grouped data has been explained in the table below. The initial steps upto column 4, are the same as those we followed in the computation of the mean for grouped data. We begin with deviation value of zero has been assigned to the group. Like wise other deviations are determined. Values in column 4(fx’) are obtained by the multiplication of the values in the two previous columns. Values in column 5(fx’ 2) are obtained by multiplying the values given in column 3 and 4. Then various columns have been summed.

The following formula is used to calculate the Standard Deviation:

Question 3(iv).
Which measures of dispersion is the most unstable statistic and why?
Answer:
Range is the most unstable statistic because:

• Range is not based on all the terms. Only extreme items reflect its size. Hence, range cannot be completely representative of the data as all other middle values are ignored.
• Due to the above reason, range is not a reliable measure of dispersion.
• Range does not change even the least even if all other, in between, terms and variables are changed.
• Range is too much affected by fluctuation of sampling. Range changes from sample to sample. As the size of sample increases range increases and vice-versa.
• It does not tell us anything about the variability of other data.
• For open-end intervals, range is indeterminate because lower and appear limits of first and last interval are not given.

Question 3(v).
Write a detailed note on the degree of correlation.
Answer:
Through the coefficient of correlation, we can measure the degree or extent of the correlation between the two variables. On the basis of the coefficient of correlation, we can also determine whether the correlation is positive or negative and also its degree or extent.

Perfect correlation: If two variables change in the same direction and in the same proportion, the correlation between the two is perfect positive. According to Karl Pearson, the coefficient of correlation, in this case, is +1. On the other hand, if the variables change in the opposite direction and in the same proportion, the correlation is perfect negative. Its coefficient of correlation is -1. In practice we rarely come across these types of correlations.

Absence of correlation: If two series of two variables exhibit no relations between them or change in variable does not lead to a change in the other variable, then we can firmly say that there is no correlation or absurd correlation between the two variables. In such a case the coefficient of correlation is 0.

Limited degrees of correlation: If two variables are not perfectly correlated or is there a perfect absence of correlation, then we term the correlation as Limited correlation. It may be positive, negative or zero but lies with the limits ± 1.
High degree, moderate degree or low degree are the three categories of this kind of correlation. The following table reveals the effect (or degree) of coefficient or correlation.

Question 3(vi).
What are various steps for the calculation of rank order correlation?
Answer:
Step 1: Rank both sets of data. Give the largest value rank 1, the second largest value rank 2, etc.
Step 2: Calculate the differences in the ranks, d.
Step 3: Work out the squares of the differences (d²).
Step 4: Calculate the sum of these squared differences, \(\sum { d } ^{ 2 }\)
Step 5: Spearman’s Rank Correlation Coefficient is found by substituting this sum into the following formula:

where n is how many pairs of data you have.
Example: Find rank correlation from data given below:

So, for this set of data, the finished equation looks like this:

High Positive Correlation.

Activity

Question 1.
Take an imaginary example applicable to geographical analysis and explain direct and indirect methods of calculating mean from ungrouped data.
Answer:
From the following data of the marks obtained by 60 students of a class.

Solution-1 (Direct Method):
Calculation of Arithmetic mean:

Here N= totlal frequency = 60

Hence,
Average Marks=41

Solution-2 (Short Cut Method):
Calculation of Arithmetic mean:

Question 2.
Draw scatter plots showing different types of perfect correlations
Answer:
Perfect Positive Correlation: If all points lie on a rising straight line the correlation is perfectly positive and r=+1

Perfect Negative Correlation: If all points lie on a falling straight line the correlation is perfectly negative and r = -1.

High degree of Positive Correlation:
If the points lie in a narrow strip rising upwards, the correlation is high degree of positive.

High degree of Negative Correlation:
If the points lie in a narrow strip falling downwards, the correlation is high degree of negative.

Low degree of Positive Correlation:
If the point are spread widely over a broad strip rising upwards, the correlation is low degree positive.

Low degree of Negative Correlation:
If the points are spread widely over a broad strip falling downwards, the correlation is low degree negative.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What measures are adopted to find correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is measured either by Karl Pearson’s method or by Spearman’s rank correlation.
Question 2.
What do you mean by median?
Answer:
The median is defined as the number in the middle of a given set of numbers arranged in order of increasing magnitude. When given a set of numbers, the median is the number positioned in the exact middle of the list when you arrange the numbers from the lowest to the highest. The median is the middle most or central value of the observations made on a variable when the values are arranged either in ascending order or descending order.

Question 3.
What do you mean by mode?
Answer:
The mode is defined as the element that appears most frequently in a given set of elements. Using the definition of frequency given above, mode can also be defined as the element with the largest frequency in a given data set.

Question 4.
Name the most stable and unstable measure of dispersion.
Answer:
The most stable measure of dispersion is standard deviation and most unstable is range.

Question 5.
Name the most stable and unstable measure of central tendency.
Answer:
The most stable measure of central tendency is median and the most unstable measure is mode.

Question 6.
Which measures are affected by the extreme values?
Answer:
In measures of central tendency, mean and in measures of dispersion, range is most affected by the extreme values.

Question 7.
What are different types of mode?
Answer:
There are three types of mode

1. Unimodal: A series of data having one mode is called ‘unimodal’.
2. Bimodal: A series of data having two modes is called ‘bimodal’.
3. Multimodal: Some series may also have several modes and be called ‘multimodal’.

Question 8.
Who adopted a scientific method to measure correlation?
Answer:
Karl Pearson was the first person to measure correlation scientifically.

Question 9.
Find mean from the data given below:
24, 32, 40, 44, 33, 27, 14, 56, 54.
Answer:

Question 10.
Temperature of a place is given for 12 months. Find the average temperature.
9, 12, 18, 22, 35, 36, 24, 23, 19, 17, 14, 11
Answer:

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different measures of central tendency?
Answer:
A measure of central tendency is a single value that attempts to describe a set of data by identifying the central position within that set of data. As such, measures of central tendency are sometimes called measures of central location. They are also classed as summary statistics. The mean (often called the average) is most likely the measure of central tendency that you are most familiar with, but there are others, such as the median and the mode.
The mean, median and mode are all valid measures of central tendency, but under different conditions, some measures of central tendency become more appropriate to use than others. In the following sections, we will look at the calculation of mean in different types of series, combined mean, weighted mean, finding missing frequencies and correcting mean.

Question 2.
What do you mean by mean? What measures are adopted to find it?
Answer:
The mean (or average) is the most popular and well known measure of central tendency. It can be used with both discrete and continuous data, although its use is most often with continuous data. The mean is equal to the sum of all the values in the data set divided by the number of values in the data set. So, if we have n values in a data set and they have values x1, x2, …. xn, the sample mean, usually denoted by x (pronounced xbar), is:

It is calculated by two methods: (a) Direct method and (b) Indirect method.

Question 3.
What do you mean by correlation?
Answer:
A statistical technique that is used to analyse the strength and direction of the relationship between two quantitative variables is called correlation analysis. The coefficient of correlation is a number that indicates the strength (magnitude) and direction of statistical relationship between two variables. The strength of the relationship is determined by the closeness of the points to a straight line when a pair of values of two variables are plotted on a graph. A straight line is used as the frame of reference for evaluating the relationship. The direction is determined by whether one variable generally increases or decreases when the other variable increases.

Question 4.
Give formula for finding mean.
Answer:
Solution-1 (Direct Method):
If x_1,x₂, x3, x_n are ‘n’ individual observed values of a variable x, then the A.M is denoted by % and is defined as

Solution-2 (Short Cut Method):
Short Cut method: Under this method the formula for calculating mean is

Question 5.
From the figures given below, find mean by direct and by direct and indirect methods.

Answer:
Calculation of Arithmetic mean by Direct Method:

= 1560/60 = 26

Calculation of Arithmetic mean by Short Cut Method:

= 35 – 540/60 = 26

Question 6.
From the given ungrouped data, find median.
62, 68, 53, 57, 20, 30, 32, 45, 72, 77, 81
Answer:
From the definition o median, we should be able to tell that the first step is to rearrange the fiven set of numbers in order to increase magnitude, i.e. from the lowest to the highest

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the difference between standard deviation and coefficient of variation.
Answer:
Standard deviation is superior to other measures because of its merits showing the variability which is important for statistical data. The standard deviation enjoys many qualities of a good measure of dispersion.
In mean deviation we take the sum of deviations from actual mean after ignoring + – signs. In standard deviation, we get the same results without ignoring signs.
In this case deviation from actual mean are wquared, and hence every term is positive.

1. It is a pure number and the unit of observations is not mentioned with its value. It is written in percentage form like 20% or 25%. When its value is 20%, it means that when the mean of the observations is assumed equal to 100, their standard deviation will be 20.
2. in their means or differ in the units of measurement. The wages of workers may be in dollars and the consumption of meat in their families may be in kilograms. The standard deviation of wages in dollars cannot be compared with the standard deviation of amounts of meat in kilograms. Both the standard deviations need to be converted into coefficient of variation for comparison.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Lorenz Curve?
It was given by Dr. Max. O. Lorenz. It is a graph on which the cumulative percentage of total national income (or some other variable) is plotted against the cumulative percentage of the corresponding population (ranked in increasing size of share). The extent to which the curve sags below a straight diagonal line indicates the degree of inequality of distribution.
Steps to Plot a Lorenz Curve:

• Cumulate both values and their corresponding frequencies.
• Find the percentage of each of the cumulated figures taking the grand total of each corresponding column as 100.
• Represent the percentage of the cumulated frequencies on X axis and those of the values on the Y axis.
• Draw a diagonal line designated as the line of equal distribution.
• Plot the percentages of cumulated values against the percentages of the cumulated frequencies of a given distribution and join the points so plotted through a free hand curve.

Example: From the following details of monthly income, draw a Lorenz curve.

Solution:

Question 3.
Explain merits and demerits of arithmetic mean.
Answer:
Merits of Arithmetic Mean:

• Arithmetic mean is most popular among averages used in statistical analysis.
• It is very simple to understand and easy to calculate.
• The calculation of arithmetic mean is based on all the observations in the series.
• The arithmetic mean is responsible for further algebraic treatment.
• It is strictly defined.
• It provides a good means of comparison.
• It has more sampling stability.

Demerits of Arithmetic Mean:

• The arithmetic mean is affected by the extreme values in a series.
• In case of a missing observation in a series it is not possible to calculate the arithmetic mean.
• In case frequency distribution with open end classes the calculation of arithmetic mean is theoretically impossible.
• The arithmetic mean is an unsuitable average for qualitative data.

Question 4.
Explain merits and demerits of median.
Answer:
According to Croxton and Cowden, “The median is generally defined as the value which divides the distribution so that an equal number of items is on either side of it.”

Merits:

• The median is useful in case of frequency distribution with open-end classes.
• The median is recommended if distribution has unequal classes.
• Extreme values do not affect the median as strongly as they affect the mean.
• It is the most appropriate average in dealing with qualitative data.
• The value of median can be determined graphically whereas the value of mean can not be determined graphically.
• It is easy to calculate and understand.

Demerits:

• For calculating median, it is necessary to arrange the data, whereas other averages do not need arrangement.
• Since it is a positional average its value is not determined by all the observations in the series.
• Median is not capable for further algebraic calculations.
• The sampling stability of the median is less as compared to mean.

Question 5.
Explain merits and demerits of mode.
Answer:
Mode is the most frequent item in the series.

Merits:

• It is easier to calculate and simpler to understand.
• It is not affected by the extreme values.
• The value of mode can be determined graphically.
• Its value can be determined in case of open-end class interval.
• The mode is the most representative of the distribution.

Demerits:

• It is not suitable for further mathematical treatments.
• The value of mode cannot always be determined.
• The value of mode is not based on each and every items of the series.
• The mode is strictly defined.
• It is difficult to calculate when one of the observations is zero or the sum of the observations is zero.

Question 6.
What is included in measures of dispersion? What is measured through it?
Answer:
Measures of central tendency do not reveal how values in the data set are dispersed (spread or scattered) on each side of the central value. The dispersion of values is indicated by the extent to which these values tend to spread over an interval rather than cluster closely around an average. The statistical techniques to measure such dispersion are of two types:
1. Techniques that are used to measure the extent of variation or the deviation (also called degree of variation) of each value in the data set from a measure of central tendency, usually the mean or median. Such statistical techniques are called measures of dispersion (or variation).
2. Techniques that are used to measure the direction (away from uniformity or symmetiy) of variation in the distribution of values in the data set. Such statistical techniques are called measures of skewness.
It includes the following:

• Range
• Question uartile Deviation
• Mean Deviation
• Standard Deviation and Co-efficient of Variation (C.V.)
• Lorenz Curve

Question 7.
Give formula for finding median.
Answer:
Step-1:
Arrange the data in ascending or descending order of magnitude or find cf.
Step-2:
Case (i) If the number of observations is odd then median is the \(\frac { n+1 }{ 2 } \) th observation in the arranged order.
Case (ii) If the number of observations is even then the median is the mean of  \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\) th and \(\frac { n }{ 2 } +1\) th observations in the arranged order
It is median in individual series.
But in case of continuous series, we need following steps further.

• Now look at the cumulative frequency column and find that total which is either equal to \(\frac { n+1 }{ 2 } \) or next higher to that and determine the value of the variable
  corresponding to it. That gives the median class.
• The median of a continuous series can be calculated by the below interpolation formula.
  
  Where l₁ = lower limit of the median class.
  f = frequency corresponding to the median class
  n/2 = Total frequency divided by 2.
  n= total frequency
  C = cumulative frequency of the class preceding to the median class
  i = Class Interval of Median Class.

Question 8.
Give formula for finding mean deviation.
Answer:
Mean Deviation in Individual Series:

Mean Deviation in Discrete Series:
If the data is grouped in a frequency table, the expression the mean deviation is

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Viva Questions

Question 1.
What is the minimum and maximum value of correlation?
Answer:
1< R<+1

Question 2.
What does perfect correlation mean?
Answer:
Perfect positive correlation means that double the X, Y will be doubled and vice- versa. Perfect negative correlation means that double the X and Y will be halved and vice-versa.

Question 3.
What is the relationship between mean, median and mode in a normal distribution?
Answer:
Mean = median = mode

Question 4.
What is the relationship between mean, median and mode in skewed distribution?
Answer:
Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean

Question 5.
Who gave the concept of Lorenz Curve?
Answer:
It was given by Dr. Max. O. Lorenz.

Question 6.
What does a zero correlation mean?
Answer:
Zero correlation means that with an increase/decrease in X, Y does not change.

Question 7.
What is the implication of line of equality?
Answer:
Line of equality shows that there is no unevenness in distribution. Farther is the distribution from this line greater is the inequality.

Data Processing  Notes

• A number of statistical techniques are used to analyse the data. Most important of these are:
  • Measures of Central Tendency
  • Measures of Dispersion
  • Measures of Relationship
• The number denoting the central tendency is the representative figure for the entire data set because it is the point about which items have a tendency to cluster. Measures of central tendency are also known as statistical averages. There are three measures of central tendency: mean, median and the mode.
• • The following methods are used as measures of dispersion:
  • Range
  • Quartile Deviation
  • Mean Deviation
  • Standard Deviation and Co-efficient of Variation (C.V.)
  • Lorenz Curve
• Measures of correlation include: Karl Pearson’s Correlation coefficient, Spearman’s rank correlation.
• There are two methods of measuring mean: Direct method and Indirect method. Both of these can be used for grouped data as well as ungrouped data.
• Mean is considered to be vague and unreliable because many times the value of mean is not equal to any of the value of data. For example, if marks of five students are 35, 46, 54, 52 and 68 then mean will be equal to
  
• These are not the marks of any of the five students.

• Mean is of three types:
  • Arithmetic Mean
  • Geometric Mean
  • Harmonic Mean
• Direction of Correlation: It is our common experience that an input is made to get some output. There could be three possibilities.
  • With the increase in input the output also increases. It is called positive correlation.
  • With the increase in the input the output decreases. It is called Negative correlation.
  • Change in the input does not lead to change in the output. It is called Zero correlation.

Data Processing Important Terms

• Mean: The mean is the value which is derived by summing all the values and dividing it by the number of observations.

• Median: The median is the value which divides the arranged series into two equal halves. It is independent of the actual value.
• Mode: The value that occurs most frequently in a distribution.
• Dispersion: The term dispersion refers to the scattering of scores about the measure of central tendency. It is used to measure the extent to which individual items or numerical data tend to vary or spread about an average value.
• Range: Range (R) is the difference between maximum and minimum values in a series of distribution. This way it simply represents the distance from the smallest to the largest score in a series. It can also be defined as the highest score minus the lowest score.
• Quartile Deviation (Q.D): The Quartile Deviation is a slightly better measure of absolute dispersion than the range. But it ignores the observation on the tails. If we take different samples from a population and calculate their quartile deviations, their values are quite likely to be sufficiently different. This is called sampling fluctuation. It is not a popular measure of dispersion. The quartile deviation calculated from the sample data does not help us to draw any conclusion (inference) about the quartile deviation in the population.
• Mean Deviation: It is also called an Absolute Deviation. Absolute deviation for a given data set is defined as the average of the absolute difference between the elements of the set and the mean (average deviation) or the median element (median absolute deviation). The mean deviation or the average deviation is defined as the mean of the absolute deviations of observations from some suitable average which may be the arithmetic mean, the median or the mode.
• Standard Deviation: Standard Deviation (SD) is the most widely used measure of dispersion. It is defined as the square root of the average of squares of deviations. It is always calculated around the mean. Standard Deviation is defined as the root mean square deviation.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Water Resources

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following types describes water as a resource?
(a) Abiotic resource
(b) Non-renewable Resources
(c) Biotic Resource
(d) Cyclic Resource
Answer:
(d) Cyclic Resource

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following rivers has the highest replenishable ground water resource in the country?
(a) The Indus
(b) The Brahmaputra
(c) The Ganga
(d) The Godavari
Answer:
(a) The Indus

Question 1.(iii)
Which of the following figures in cubic kilometres correctly shows the total annual precipitation in India?
(a) 2,000
(b) 3,000
(c) 4,000
(d) 5,000
Answer:
(c) 4,000

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following south Indian states has the highest groundwater utilization (in per cent) of its total ground water potential?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 1.(v)
The highest proportion of the total water used in the country is in which one of the following sectors?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Industries
(c) Domestic use
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Irrigation

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
It is said that the water resources in India have been depleting very fast. Discuss the factors responsible for depletion of water resources?
Answer:
Water scarcity is possibly to pose the greatest challenge on account of its increased demand coupled with shrinking supplies due to over utilization and pollution. The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to increase in population. The available water resources are also getting polluted with industrial, agricultural and domestic effluents, and this, in turn, is further limiting the availability of usable water resources.

Some states utilize large proportion of their ground water potential which has resulted in ground water depletion in these states. Over withdrawals in some states like Rajasthan, and Maharashtra has increased fluoride concentration in ground-water, and this practice has led to increase in concentration of arsenic in parts of West Bengal and Bihar. Water, gets polluted by foreign matters such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial, domestic and other wastes. When toxic substances enter lakes, steams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water. This results in pollution of water whereby quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems. Sometimes, these pollutants also seep down and pollute groundwater. The Ganga and the Yamuna are the two highly polluted rivers in the country,

Question 2.(ii)
What factors are responsible for the highest groundwater depletion in the states of Punjab, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The states of Punjab, Haryana and Tamil Nadu have agriculture supported mainly by irrigated water and the main source for it is the underground water. These reasons were the target regions for green revolution. All the green revolution crops are water intensive, hence the demand for water in these states is very high. These regions have soft alluvial soil which allows the rain water to seep down and recharge the underground water table. This area is easy to be dug, hence extraction of underground water is easiest source of water.

It has also been found that irrigated lands have higher agricultural productivity than unirrigated land. Further, the high yielding varieties of crops need regular moisture supply, which is made possible only by a developed irrigation systems. In Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh more than 85 per cent of their net sown area is under irrigation. Wheat and rice are grown mainly with the help of irrigation in these states. Of the total net irrigated area 76.1 per cent in Punjab and 51.3 per cent in Haryana are irrigated through wells and tube wells. This shows that these states utilize large proportion of their groundwater potential which has resulted in groundwater depletion in these states. The over-use of groundwater resources has led to decline in ground water table in these states.

Question 2.(iii)
Why the share of agricultural sector in total water used in the country is expected to decline?
Answer:
At present the agriculture use accounts for the highest share of utilization for both ground and surface water resources. The main reason being that the agriculture accounts or the largest share in economy of the country, but in recent times the share of secondary and tertiary activities have been rising in the economy. This in turn will reduce the share of the agriculture and increase the share of industrial and domestic sector in the consumption of all resources including the water resources of the country.

Question 2.(iv)
What can be possible impacts of consumption of contaminated/unclean water on the people?
Answer:
Water constitutes a large proportion of human body. Water intake is an essential part of human life. Contaminated water intake is one of the biggest reasons of many chronic diseases. The intake of contaminated water is the cause of severe water borne disease and is also one of the main causes of high infant mortality rates. The contaminated water is the reason for several diseases like Cholera, typhoid, etc. which are major killer diseases in India.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Discuss the availability of water resources in the country and factors that determine its spatial distribution?
Answer:
India accounts for about 2.45 per cent of world’s surface area, 4 per cent of the world’s water resources and about 16 per cent of world’s population. The total water available from precipitation in the country in a year is about 4,000 cubic km. The availability from surface water and replenishable groundwater is 1,869 cubic km. Out of this only 60 per cent can be put to beneficial uses. Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only about 690 cubic km (32 per cent) of the available surface water can be utilised. Water flow in a river depends on size of its catchment area or river basin and rainfall within its catchment area.

Precipitation in India has very high spatial variation, and it is mainly concentrated in Monsoon season. Rivers in the country like the Ganga, the Brahmaputra, and the Indus have huge catchment areas. Given that precipitation is relatively high in the catchment areas of the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Barak rivers, these rivers, although account for only about one-third of the total area in the country, have 60 per cent of the total surface water resources. Morever Himalayan rivers are glacial fed perennial whereas Southern rivers are rainfed seasonal rivers. Much of the annual water flow in south Indian rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri has been harnessed, but it is yet to be done in the Brahmaputra and the Ganga basins.

Groundwater Resources: The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km. The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of south India. The groundwater utilisation is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. However, there are States like Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc., which utilise only a small proportion of their groundwater potentials. States like Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Tripura and Maharashtra are utilising their ground water resources at a moderate rate.

Lagoons and Backwaters: India has a vast coastline and the coast is very indented in some states. Due to this, a number of lagoons and lakes have formed. The States like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in these lagoons and lakes. Water is generally used for fishing and irrigating certain varieties of paddy crops, coconut, etc.

Surface Water Resources: There are four major sources of surface water. These are rivers, lakes, ponds, and tanks. In the country, there are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km.

Question 3.(ii)
The depleting water resources may lead to social conflicts and disputes. Elaborate it with suitable examples?
Answer:
It can be said with some certainty that the societies will witness demographic transition, geographical shift of population, technological advancement, degradation of environment and water scarcity. Water scarcity is possibly to pose the greatest challenge on account of its increased demand coupled with shrinking supplies due to over utilisation and pollution. Water is a cyclic resource with abundant supplies on the globe. Approximately, 71 per cent of the earth’s surface is covered with it but fresh water constitutes only about 3 per cent of the total water. In fact, a very small proportion of fresh water is effectively available for human use. The availability of fresh water varies over space and time. The tensions and disputes on sharing and control of this scare resource are becoming contested issues among communities, regions, and states.

India accounts for about 2.45 per cent of world’s surface area, 4 per cent of the world’s water resources and about 16 per cent of world’s population. The total utilizable water resource in the country is only 1,122 cubic km. This dearth of utilizable water has been cause of several disputes in India at local, state and national levels. Sadly in India there is conflict on issues like social structure (casteism, communalism etc.)
Rivers of Northern India have condition of water surplus and many regions face flood situation whereas, the rivers in Southern India have perennial flow concentrated in the months of monsoon leading to water scarcity during rest of the year. To solve the situation there have been many proposed river linkage schemes which became causes for disputes among the states over the sharing of water resources.

It is the scarcity of water that has caused longstanding disputes between the state of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu over sharing of waters of Kaveri River. Sharing of water of Brahmaputra has always been a cause of conflict between India and Bangladesh. Much to India’s dislike and concern China is planning to build a dam on river Brahmaputra.

Question 3.(iii)
What is watershed management? Do you think it can play an important role in sustainable development?
Answer:
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources with community participation. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human within a watershed. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon community participation. In short community is the soul of the entire scheme.

Watershed management not only conserves the entire ecosystem of an area but also empowers the people by making them socially and economically self reliant as it has community participation as its vital component. Since local people understand the local ecosystem in the best way, therefore they conserve in the best way. Sustainable development is the development, which fulfills the needs of present generation without depriving the future generations from the benefits arising from the resources. Watershed management helps conserving the environment along with fulfilling need of the people.

The importance of watershed management in sustainable development has been identified and many programmes both by government and NGOs have been launched for the watershed management. Some examples are—
Haryalis, a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation. The Project is being executed by Gram Panchayats with people’s participation.
Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) programme (in Andhra Pradesh) and Arvary Pani Sansad (in Alwar, Rajasthan) have taken up constructions of various water -harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, dug out ponds (Johad), check dams, -etc. through people’s participation. Tamil Nadu has made water harvesting structures in the houses compulsory. No building can be constructed without making structures for water harvesting.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What percentage of world’s water resource does India have?
Answer:
About 4% of the world’s water resource.

Question 2.
What is the percentage of fresh water to total water in the world?
Answer:
About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water but fresh water is about 3% of the total water resource.

Question 3.
What is the total replenishable groundwater resource of India?
Answer:
The total replenishable groundwater resource of India is about 432 cubic km.

Question 4.
Define rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. It is also used to recharge groundwater aquifers. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore well, pits and wells. Rainwater harvesting increases water availability, checks the declining groundwater table, improves the quality of groundwater, controls soil erosion and flooding.

Question 5.
What is watershed management?
Answer:
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human with in a watershed.

Question 6.
What are the water conservation projects of Andhra Pradesh & Rajasthan?
Answer:
Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) programme (in Andhra Pradesh) and Arvary Pani Sansad (in Alwar, Rajasthan) are the two water-harvesting projects through people’s participation.

Question 7.
What are the different water harvesting structures?
Answer:
Percolation tanks, recharge wells, dugout ponds (Johad).

Question 8.
Which was the first state to make water harvesting system compulsory?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 9.
What are the rainwater harvesting structures in Rajasthan?
Answer:
The rainwater harvesting structures in Rajasthan is a Kund or Tanka (a covered underground tank) near or in the house or village and Johads are used to store harvested rain water. Rooftop rain water is diverted and stored in them.

Question 10.
In spite of the fact that 71% of the earth is covered with water, water is scarce. Substantiate.
Answer:
Approximately, 71 per cent of the earth’s surface is covered with it but only 3% of it is fresh water. A very small proportion of fresh water is effectively available for human use. The availability of fresh water varies over space and time. The tensions and disputes on sharing and control of this scare resource are becoming contested issues among communities, regions, and states. The assessment, efficient use and conservation of water, therefore, become necessaiy to ensure development.

Question 11.
In which sector the share of total water used in the country is high?
Answer:
In agricultural sector the share of total water is high in the country.

Question 12.
Compare water resources of India and it population with respect of the world.
Answer:
16% of the world population live in India but only 4% of total water resources of the world belongs to India.

Question 13.
Mention four sources of surface water.
Answer:
There are four major sources of surface water: rivers, lakes, ponds, and tanks.

Question 14.
Give an account of river water in India.
Answer:
There are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km.

Question 15.
In which rivers precipitation rates are high and what are its effects?
Answer:
Precipitation is relatively high in the catchment areas of the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Barak rivers. As a result, these rivers, although account for only about one-third of the total area in the country, have 60 per cent of the total surface water resources.

Question 16.
Which states have surface water in the form of lagoons and lakes? For what purpose is it used?
Answer:
The states like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in these lagoons and lakes. Although, water is generally brackish in these water bodies, it is used for fishing and irrigating certain varieties of paddy crops, coconut, etc. .

Question 17.
Where is the highest replenishable water concentrated?
Answer:
The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km. The Ganga and the Brahamaputra basins, have about 46 per cent of the total replenishable groundwater resources. The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of south India.

Question 18.
What is the utility of irrigation in agriculture?
Answer:
Irrigation makes it possible to use:
(a) Modern farming methods
(b) Multi-cropping for more production.
(c) Reduces dependence on monsoon which is very uncertain.

Question 19.
How does irrigation help in multi¬cropping?
Answer:
Through irrigation land can be utilised throughout the year but if irrigation facilities are not there we can grow crops only in rainy season. Therefore, it helps in multi-cropping.

Question 20.
What do you mean by water pollution?
Answer:
Water pollution is alteration of the physical, biological, chemical, and radiological integrity of water due to human activities, any unwanted contaminating property that renders a water supply unfit for its designated use.

Question 21.
Why is rainwater harvesting important?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is important to conserve rainwater and utilise it for various purposes like irrigation, cleaning, washing, etc.

Question 22.
How has Ralegan Siddhi become a source of inspiration?
Answer:
Ralegan Siddhi is a small village in the district of Ahmadnagar, Maharashtra. It has become an example for watershed development throughout the country.

Question 23.
How is quality of national water resources monitored?
Answer:
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in collaboration with State Pollution Control Boards has been monitoring water quality of national aquatic resources at 507 stations.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the three things essential for water resource development?
Answer:
A very small proportion of fresh water is available for human use. The availability of fresh water varies over space and time. The tensions and disputes on sharing and control of this scare resource have become serious problems. So assessment, efficient use and Conservation of water, have become necessary to ensure development.

Question 2.
Why does the use of groundwater vary from state to state?
Answer:
The rate of groundwater utilization is very high in the river basins of north west India and parts of south India, where the rain water percolates down easily through the soft soils and recharge underground water table. It is also easy to construct wells and tube wells here. Surface water is more utilized in the crystalline rocks of south India.

Question 3.
What are the emerging water problems facing India?
Answer:
The over-use of groundwater resources has led to decline in ground water table in the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh. In fact, over withdrawals in some states like Rajasthan and Maharashtra has increased fluoride concentration in groundwater, and this practice has led to increase in concentration of arsenic in parts of West Bengal and Bihar. The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to increase in population. The available water resources are also getting polluted with industrial, agricultural and domestic effluents,
and this, in turn, is further limiting the availability of usable water resources.

Question 4.
When was National Water Policy undertaken? Give its key features.
Answer:
The National Water Policy was undertaken in 2002, to prioritized the ‘ water allocation in the different sectors in the following order:
Drinking water, Irrigation, Hydro power, Navigation, Industrial and Other uses. Highlights:

• Providing drinking water is the first priority.
• Irrigation and multi-purpose projects should include drinking water in areas where it is not available.
• Regulate and limit groundwater exploitation.
• Regular monitoring of water sources for quality.
• Awareness and conservation consciousness should be promoted.

Question 5.
What do you mean by degradation of water resources?
Answer:
Water quality refers to the purity of water, or water without unwanted foreign substances. Water gets polluted by foreign matters such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes. Such matters deteriorate the quality of water and render it unfit for human use. When toxic substances enter lakes, steams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water. This results in pollution of water whereby the quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems.

Question 6.
Why is the level of groundwater utilization relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of South India?
Answer:

• Water percolates easily in alluvial soil construction is easy.
• Northern states are mostly the agricultural states where the water is used for irrigation.
• South India is hard in rocky terrain, percolation of the water becomes difficult, moreover, canal construction is costly because of topography.

Question 7.
Name the three states which have larger area under irrigation and why?
Answer:
The three states are:

1. Punjab
2. Haiyana
3. Western Uttar Pradesh

It is because:

• Wheat and rice are grown mainly with the help of irrigation in these states.
• Net irrigated area of Punjab and Haryana are irrigated through wells and tube wells.
• These states utilize large proportion of their groundwater potential.
• Canal irrigation is the biggest source of irrigation in North India.
• In peninsular India, tank irrigation is mostly done.

Question 8.
What are the implications of using groundwater in drought-prone areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• The over-use of groundwater resources has led to decline in its level.
• Rajasthan and Maharashtra have increased fluoride concentration in groundwater.
• This practice has led to increase in concentration of arsenic in West Bengal and Bihar.
• This practice has increased salinity in the soil of Punjab and Haryana.

Question 9.
What are the four major problems in the development of water resources in India?
Answer:
Water resources in India faced many problems such as availability, quality, usage and management.

• Availability: Water resources are excess in some regions such as West Bengal whereas it is deficient in other parts of the country like Rajasthan and peninsular India.
• Quality: Water pollution is caused by domestic waste, industrial waste and chemical use in agriculture.
• Usage: Underground water resources could be used in Northern India whereas in Gujarat, Maharashtra, West Bengal, it increases the concentration of arsenic, fluoride and salinity in the soil.
• Management: The availability of fresh water is less and is also declining whereas the demand of water is getting rapid due to industrialization and urbanization, moreover inter-state water disputes are increasing. There are seepage losses and lack of improved irrigation facilities.

Question 10.
Why there is a need to conserve water resources?
Answer:

• Increasing demand for agricultural sector, domestic use due to urbanisation and industrialisation & rise in population.
• Sustainable development.
• High cost of desalinisation.

Due to above reasons, we need to conserve water resources.

Question 11.
Give a few examples where water can be recycled and reused to improve the availability of fresh water.
Answer:

• Use of water of lesser quality such as reclaimed waste-water would be an attractive option for industries.
• Fire fighting and industrialization cooling to reduce their water cost.
• Urban areas water after bathing and washing utensils can be used for gardening.
• Water used for washing vehicle can also be used for gardening.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major sources of surface water?
Answer:
There are four major sources of surface water. These are rivers, lakes, ponds, and tanks. In the country, there are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km. rate. Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only about 690 cubic km (32 per cent) of the available surface water can be utilised. Water flow in a river depends on size of its catchment area or river basin and rainfall within its catchment area.

Precipitation in India has spatio temporal variation, and it is mainly concentrated in Monsoon season. Some of the rivers in the country like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and the Indus have huge catchment areas. Precipitation is high in the catchment areas of the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Barak rivers, these rivers, although account for only about one-third of the total area in the country, have 60 per cent of the total surface water resources. A good percentage of water flow in south Indian rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri has been harnessed. The other sources of surface water like lakes, ponds and tanks are utilized. In south India, tank irrigation is common.

Question 2.
With the example of ‘Ralegan Siddhi’ show how watershed development projects are imperative for development.
Answer:
Ralegan Siddhi’ is a village in Maharashtra, which was under abject poverty. Transformation started with the initiative of an army personnel, who took up watershed development. Voluntary work by the villagers along with their monetary contribution changed the village from a poverty stricken village to a role model for others to emulate. Work began with a percolation tank. A youth group called Tarun Mandal was formed which worked to ban the dowry system, caste discrimination and other social evils.Cultivation of water intensive crops and practice of open grazing were banned. Crops with low water requirements were encouraged. Nyay Panchayat was set up to look in to the local problems. Utilising local resources, a school was contructed. The villagers want to buy land from adjoining villages for developmental purposes. The village transformed to a self reliant and sufficient village.

Question 3.
Give some possible solutions to water problem in India.
Answer:
In order to solve water problem in India constructive holistic approach should be adopted and implemented.

• There is a wide scope to use rainwater harvesting technique to conserve precious water resource. It can be done by harvesting rainwater on rooftops and open spaces. Harvesting rainwater also decreases the community dependence on groundwater for domestic use.
• Besides bridging the demand supply gap, it can also save energy to pump groundwater as recharge leads to rise in groundwater table. Urban areas can specially benefit from rainwater harvesting as water demand has already outstripped supply in most of the cities and towns.
• Desalinization of water particularly in coastal areas and brackish water in arid and semi-arid areas.
• Transfer of water from water surplus areas to water deficit areas through inter linking of rivers can be important remedies for solving water problem in India.
• Pricing of water for households and communities should be considered more seriously.

Question 4.
Describe the features of surface water and the groundwater distribution in India.
Answer:

Surface water:

• Major sources of surface water are rivers, lakes, ponds and tanks. In the country there are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries are averagely longer than 1.6 km each.
• The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1869 cubic kms.
• Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints only 32% of available surface water can be utilised.
• The Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Indus river account for 60% of the total water resources in India. The expanse of these rivers are broader and larger and receive heavy rainfall.

Groundwater resources:

• Groundwater resources in our country are about 432 cubic kms.
• The Ganga and the Brahmaputra have larger replenishable groundwater resources.
• The level of groundwater utilization is high in river basins relatively lying in north western region and in parts of south India.
• The groundwater utilization is very high in states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.
• The states like Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Kerala utilize only small proportion of ground water.
• The states like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in legumes and lake also. Although water is generally brackish in these water bodies they are used for fishing, irrigating certain amount of paddy and crops like coconut, etc.
• The states like Gujarat, U.P, Bihar, Tripura and Maharashtra, are utilizing groundwater resources at a moderate rate.

Question 5.
Explain important features of National Water Policy, 2002.
Answer:
The following points are the salient features of National Water Policy, 2002.

• Emphasis on the need for a national water framework law, comprehensive legislation for optimum development of inter-state rivers and river valleys, amendment of Irrigation Acts, Indian Easements Act, 1882, etc.
• Water, after meeting the pre-emptive needs for safe drinking water and sanitation, achieving food security, supporting poor people dependent on agriculture for their livelihood and high priority allocation for minimum ecosystem needs, be treated as economic good so as to promote its conservation and efficient use.
• Ecological needs of the river should be determined recognizing that river flows are characterized by low or no flows, small floods (freshets), large floods and flow variability should accommodate development needs. A portion of river flows should be kept aside to meet ecological needs ensuring that the proportional low and high flow releases correspond in time closely to the natural flow regime.
• Adaptation strategies in view of climate change for designing and management of water resource structures, review of acceptability criteria and increasing water storage have been emphasized.
• A system to evolve the benchmarks for water uses for different purposes, i.e., water footprints, and water auditing be developed to ensure efficient use

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Diagram Based Questions

Question 1.
Study the diagrams given below and compare. Give reasons for their variation. Domestic

Answer:
From the above diagrams, it is clear that, in both the cases it is the agricultural sector that uses maximum share of both surface and groundwater. We need more crops in order to feed our large population for which water is essential. Its easy for households to utilize more of surface water from rivers, ponds etc. Industries can afford to utilize more of underground water.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
The depleting water resources may lead to social conflicts and disputes. Elaborate it with suitable examples.
Answer:
Inter-state River Water Disputes in India! Most rivers of India are plagued with inter-state disputes. Almost all the major rivers of the country are inter-state rivers and their waters are shared by, two or more than two states.

After independence, demand for water had been increasing at an accelerated pace due to rapid growth of population, agricultural development, urbanization, industrialization, etc. These developments have led to several inter-state disputes about sharing of water of these rivers.

Following inter-state river water disputes are worth mentioning:

• The Cauvery water dispute between Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala.
• The Krishna water dispute between Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Tungabhadra water dispute between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
• The Aliyar and Bhivani river water dispute between Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
• The Godavari river water dispute between Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Karnataka.

Question 2.
Why do we need to encourage watershed development?
Answer:
We need to encourage watershed development due to following reasons:

• To prevent run-off.
• To increase storage and recharge of groundwater.
• Conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources like land, water, plants, animals etc.
• To encourage community and people participation, for example, Neeru-Meeru, Haiyali etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which river basin of India has the highest percentage of replenishable utilization of groundwater resources? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Ganga.

Question 2.
Which sector (economic-activity) uses most of the surface and groundwater in India? (A.1.2010)
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 3.
Name the two metropolitan cities which are the main polluters of river Ganga before it reaches Varanasi. (OBSE 2011)
Answer:

• Kanpur
• Allahabad.

Question 4.
How can you help in improving the quality of water in your locality? (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Improvement in quality of water:

• Judicious use of water
• Creating awareness – importance of water
  (Any one point to be mentioned)

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why is conservation and management of water resources essential in India? Explain any three reasons. (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
Reasons for conservation and management of water resources are:

• There is a declining availability of fresh water and increasing demand, Per capita availability of water is declining day by day.
• There is a great demand of water due to increase of population. Demand of water is increasing in different sectors like agriculture, industries and for domestic uses.
• Pollution of water is responsible for declining the quality of water. This causes the un-usability of this precious life giving resource.

Question 2.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: (CBSE 2011)

(i) Why is the share of surface water very limited to the industrial sector?
(ii) Which sector accounts for most of the surface water withdrawals and why? Give one reason.
Answer:
(i) Because of less development of industries and higher water utilization in agricultural sector. However, in future, with development, the share of industrial sector in the country is likely to increase,

(ii) Agricultural sector accounts for most of the surface water withdrawals. Because, agricultural sector requires more water for irrigation.

Question 3.
Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Which sector accounts for most of the groundwater utilisation?
(ii) Why is the share of water utilization in domestic sector lower in groundwater as compared to surface water?
Answer:
(i) Agricultural sector as irrigation is essential to enhance agricultural productivity.

(ii) (a) People prefer to live in areas with easy accessibility productivity.
(b) Underground water is not always available.
(c) Underground water is not always accessible and portable.

Question 4.
Why is there a great need for irrigation in India? Explain any three reasons. (Foreign 2011)
OR
Explain the importance of irrigation for agriculture in India. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
There is a great need for irrigation in India because:

• Spatio-temporal variability in rainfall in the country.
• Water requirement of rice, sugarcane, jute, etc. is very high which can meet only through irrigation.
• Provision of irrigation makes multiple cropping possible.

Question 5.
Examine any three causes for the deterioration of ‘quality of water’ in India. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Three causes for the deterioration of ‘quality of water’ in India are:

• Water gets polluted by foreign matters such as microorganisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes which deteriorate the quality of water and render it unfit for human use.
• When toxic substances enter lakes, steams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water. This results in pollution of water whereby quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems.
• The pollutants also seep down and pollute groundwater and causes the underground water unfit for human uses.

Question 6.
Analyse the economic and social values of rainwater harvesting. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

• It develops harmony with nature.
• It helps to save energy.
• It helps n the economic development of the country.
• Saving energy means ‘save wealth’.
• It decreases the dependence of community on ground water.
• It create awareness about conservation.
• It brings people closer as community.
• Reduces floods, saves life and property.
• It develops problem solving attitude.
• It reduces conflicts among society

Question 7.
“The assessment, efficient use and conservation of water are necessary to ensure development.” Explain in the light of values regarding conservation of water resources. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:

• India has only 4 per cent of the world’s water resources but has 16 per cent of world’s population.
• Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only 32 per cent of the available surface water can be utilized.
• Total utilizable water resource in India is very limited. Demand is increasing day by day.
• Population is increasing. Life-style is also changing.
• Water pollution is making water resource unusable.

Question 8.
How is rainwater harvesting helped in the development of certain areas of India? Explain with answer. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore well, pits and wells. It has been practiced through various methods by different communities in the country for a long time – like the Tankas in Rajasthan , Rooftop collection, percolation pits etc. Ralegan Siddhi in Maharashtra is a leading example for the same.

Question 9.
“Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the water quality considerably in India.” Explain the values that can help in maintaining the quality of water. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
The values that can help in maintaining the Quality of water:

• Judicious/optimum use of water,
• Controlling population,
• Recycle and Reuse of water,
• Watershed Management
• Rain water harvesting
• Rules and regulations
  (Any three points to be explained)

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
“Scarcity of water on account of its increased demand, possess possibility the greatest demand in India.” Analyse the statement. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Increasing demand for water is a challenge to India:

• India has a large population with limited water resources.
• Rising demand for increasing population.
• More water is required for irrigation to increase agricultural production as rainfall is highly variable.
• Rapid industrial growth is increasing demand for water.
• Urbanization and modern life style has increased the demand.
• Water pollution has added to water shortage.
  (Any 5 points to be analysed)

Question 2.
Explain how Watershed management’ and ‘rainwater harvesting’ are the methods of efficient management and conservation of surface water resources in India. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Watershed management:

• It prevents runoff, recharges ground water through percolation tanks, recharge wells etc.
• Haryali is a watershed development project which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.
• It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources: natural and human within a watershed.
• Neeru-Meeru programme in Andhra Pradesh and Arvaiy Pani Sansad in Rajasthan have taken up construction of various water harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, check dams etc.

Rainwater Harvesting:

• Traditional rainwater harvesting mainly in rural areas is done by using surface storage bodies like lakes, ponds, irrigation tanks, etc.
• In Rajasthan rainwater harvesting structures, locally known as kunds or tankas are constructed near or in the house or village to store harvested rainwater.
• It raises water availability, increases the quantity and improves the quality of ground water by diluting pollutants, contaminants, prevents soil erosion, reduces the fury of floods and checks salt water intrusion in coastalareas.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions