Bhagya

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Applied Mathematics with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Informatics Practices Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into 3 sections -A, B and C
• Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
• Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
• Section C comprises of 4 questions of 4 marks each. It contains one case study based question. Internal choice has been provided in one question.

Section – A (2 Marks)

Question 1.
Evaluate: ∫\(\frac{e^{x}(x-3)}{(x-1)^{3}}\)dx
OR
The marginal cost of producing x units of a product is given by the marginal cost function as MC = \(\sqrt{x+1}\). The cost of producing 3 units is ₹ 7800. Find the cost function.
Answer:

Commonly Made Error:
Some candidates use product rule in ∫e^x {f(x) + f'(x)} in both parts which is wrong. Students should apply the rule that ∫e^x {f(x) + f'(x)} = e^xf(x) + C only.

Answering Tip: ∫e^x{f(x) + f'(x)} is specific situation in integration by parts. This needs to be sufficiently practiced by students.

OR

We know that,
Cost Function, C(x) = ∫MC(x)dx
where MC(x) is Marginal Cost, Function
C(x) = ∫\(\sqrt{x+1}\) dx ……… (1)
Let x + 1 = t dx = dt
So, C(t) = ∫\(\sqrt{t}\) dt

which is the required cost function

Question 2.
What is the present value of a sequence of payment of ₹ 1000 made at the end of every 6 months and continuing forever, if money is worth 8% per annum compounded semi-annually ?
Answer:
The given annuity is a perpetuity.
present value of perpetuity = \(\frac{\text { Cash flow }}{\text { Interest rate }}\)
Here, cash flow = ₹ 1000
interest rate = \(\frac{8 / 2}{100}\)
= \(\frac{4}{100}\) = 0.04
So, present value = \(\frac{1000}{0.04}\)
= ₹ 25,000

Question 3.
A Machine purchased two years ago. If its value depreciates at the annual rate of 10 %.The present value of the machine is ₹ 97200,then find the value of the machine after 3 years?
OR
If the present value of a perpetuity of ₹ 600 payable at end of every 6 months is ₹ 10,000, then find the rate of interest.
Answer:
Given, P = ₹ 97,200, i = 10% p.a.
⇒ i = \(\frac{10}{100}\) = 0.1
So, value after 3 years
= 97,200 × (1 – 0.1)³
= 97,200 × 0.729
= ₹ 70,858.80
= ₹ 70,859 (approx.)

OR

Let rate of interest be r% per annum,
then i = \(\frac{r}{200}\) …… (i)
Given, R = ₹ 600 and P = ₹ 10,000
Using P = \(\frac{R}{i}\)
⇒ i = \(\frac{R}{P}=\frac{600}{10,000}\) …. (ii)
From equations (i) & (ii)
⇒ \(\frac{r}{200}=\frac{600}{10,000}\) [∴ i = \(\frac{r}{200}\)]
⇒ r = \(\frac{120,000}{10,000}\)
= 12%
∴ Rate of interest is 12%

Question 4.
The standard deviation of a sample of size 50 is 6.3. Determine the standard error whose population’s standard deviation is 6.
Answer:
Sample size n = 50
Sample S.D. s = 6.3
Population S.D. σ = 6
The standard error for sample S.D. is given by

Thus standard error for samples S.D. = 0.6

Question 5.
From the following time series obtain trend value by 3 yearly moving averages.

Answer:
Calculation of trend values by three yearly moving average method.

Question 6.
A small firm manufactures necklaces and bracelets. The total number of necklaces and bracelets that it can handle per day is at most 24. It takes one hour to make a bracelet and half an hour to make a necklace. The maximum number of hours available per day is 16. If the profit on a necklace is ₹ 100 and that on a bracelet is ₹ 300. Formulate a LPP for finding how many of each should be produced daily to maximize the profit ? It is being given that at least one of each must be produced.
Answer:
Let x be the number of necklaces manufactured and y be the number of bracelets manufactured. The total number of necklaces and bracelets it can handle is at most 24.
x + y ≤ 24 …(i)
The x items takes x hours to manufacture and y items take \(\frac{y}{2}\) hours to manufacture and the y 2 maximum time available is 16 hours. So,
x + \(\frac{y}{2}\) ≤16
2x + y ≤ 32 …(ii)
The profit on one necklace is given as ₹ 100 and the profit on one bracelet is given as ₹ 300. Let the profit be Z. To maximize the profit,
Z = 100x + 300y
Therefore, the required LPP is
Max. Z = 100x + 300y
Subject to constraints,
x + y ≤ 24
2x + y ≤ 32
x, y ≥ 1
x > 0, y > 0

Section – B [3 marks each]

Question 7.
If the demand curve is given by D(x) = 50 – 0.06x². Find the surplus or profit of the consumers if the level of sale amounts to 20 units.
Answer:
As the number of units is 20, its price rises up = D (20)
= 50 – 0.06 × 20² = 26.
The profit of consumer’s:

= 50(20 – 0) – 0.06\(\left[\frac{20^{3}}{3}-0\right]\) – 520
= 1000 – 160 – 520
= 1000 – 680
= 320
The consumer’s gain is ₹ 320, if the level of sales is twenty units.

Question 8.
Fit a straight line trend by the method of least square to the following data on sales (₹ in lakhs) for the period 2011-2018.

OR
Calculate trend values from the following data assuming 5- yearly moving averages.

Answer:
x_i = t_i – A, Here A = 2014 + 2015/2 = 2014.5

Now,
a = \(\frac{\Sigma y_{i}}{n}\) = \(\frac{1052}{8}\) = 131.5
b = \(\frac{\Sigma x_{i} y_{i}}{\Sigma x_{i}^{2}}\) = \(\frac{1232}{168}\) = 7.33
Sp, tend equation is
y = 131.5 + 7.33x

OR

Calculation of Trend values by moving average method:

Commonly Made Error: Few students find the calculation tedious in such type of questions.

Answering Tip: Do not leave the question in the middle. Do calculation with little patience.

Question 9.
Find the student’s -t for the following variable values in a sample of eight:
– 4, – 2, – 2, 0, 2, 2, 3, 3 taking the mean of the universe to be zero.
Answer:

X̄ = mean
= \(\frac{\sum x}{n}\)
= \(\frac{2}{8}\)
= 0.25
Now, compute the standard deviation using formula as,

H₀ = The mean of universe, μ = 0, we get

Question 10.
A company borrowed ₹ 60,000 for renovation. The company plans to set up a sinking fund that will pay back the loan at the end of 5 years. Assuming a rate of 10% compounded semi-annually, Find the amount of sinking fund of the ordinary annuity. Calculate the amount of the sinking fund. [Given that (1.05)¹⁰ = 1.06288.]
Answer:
Given, P = ₹ 60,000, r = 10% or 0.10, No. of years, n = 5 years and No. of payments per year, m = 2 (Semi annually)
Sinking Fund is as:

which is the required amount

Section – C (4 marks each)

Question 11.
A manufacturing company makes two types of teaching aids A and B of Mathematics for class X. Each type of A requires 9 labour hours for fabricating and 1 labour hour for finishing. Each type of B requires 12 labour hours for fabricating and 3 labour hours for finishing. For fabricating and finishing, the maximum labour hours available per week are 180 and 30 respectively. The company makes a profit of ₹ 80 on each piece of type A and ₹ 120 on each piece of type B. How many pieces of type A and type B should be manufactured per week to get a maximum profit? Formulate this as Linear Programming Problem and solve it. Identify the feasible region from the rough sketch.
Answer:
Let the number of two types of teaching aids A and B be x and y, respectively.
Writing the given data in tabular as

The profit on type A is ₹ 80 and type B is ₹ 120.
Thus, the required L.EE is
Max. Z = 80x + 120y …….. (i)
Subject to constraints
9x + 12y ≤ 180
or 3x + 4y ≤ 60
x + 3y ≤ 30
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
Consider the equation,
3x + 4y = 60

and
x + 3y = 30

On solving eq, (ii) and (iii), we get
x = 12 and y = 6
The graphical representation of the system of in equations is as shown below

From graph, feasible region is
OABCO, whose corner points are (0, 0), A(20, 0), B(12,6) and C(0,10).
The values of Z at corner points are as follows:

From the table, the maximum value of Z is ₹ 1680.
Hence, 12 pieces of type A and 6 pieces of type B should be manufactured per week to get maximum profit of ₹ 1680 per week.

Commonly Made Error: A number of candidates could not form the correct inequalities subject to given constraints. Some noted incorrect corner points to find optimum value. A few candidates did not draw rough sketch of the feasible region.

Answering Tip: Do adequate practice to frame inequalities using given constraints and finding corner points by solving inequalities.

Question 12.
A bond has issued with the face (Par) value of ₹ 1,000 at 10% coupon for three years The required rate
of return is 8%. What is the value of the bond if the coupon amount is payable on half-yearly basis ? [Given (1.04)^-6 = 0.79031]
Answer:
Given, P = ₹ 1,000 Annual Coupon Payment
= ₹ 1,000 × 10% = ₹ 100
Semi-annual Coupon Payment,
C = ₹100 ÷ 2 = ₹ 50
r = 8% ÷ 2 = 4%
= 0.04
N = 3 years × 2 = 6 periods for semi-annual coupon payments

Bond value is ₹ 1052.42

Application for completing products and balance the equation calculator of chemical reactions.

Question 13.
Rohan purchased a laptop of worth ₹ 80,000. He paid ₹ 20,000 as cash down payment and remaining balance in equal monthly installments in 2 years. If bank charges 9.% p.a. compounded monthly. Calculate the EMI [Given (1.0075)²⁴ = 1.1964]
OR
A firm anticipates an expenditure of ₹ 5,00,000 for plant modernization at end of 10 years from now. How much should the company deposit at the end of year into a sinking fund earning interest 5% per annum. [Given log 1.05 = 0.0212, antilog (0.2120) = 1.629]
Answer:
Given, Cost of laptop = ₹ 80,000
Down payment = ₹ 20,000
∴ Balance = ₹ 60,000
So, p = ₹ 60,000,
i = \(\frac{9}{12 \times 100}\)
= 0.0075
and n = 2 × 12 = 24

The required value of EMI is ₹ 2741.24

OR

Given, A = ₹ 5,00,000, r = 5% and n = 10

Now, let x = (1.05)¹⁰ …(iii)
Taking log both sides, we get
log x = 10 log (1.05)
= 10 × 0.0212
= 0.2120
⇒ x = antilog (0,2120)
x = 1.629 ……… (iv)
Thus, (iii) (1.05)¹⁰ = 1.629
Now, From (ii) P = \(\frac{500000 \times 0.05}{1.629-1}\)
= \(\frac{25000}{0.629}\)
P = 39745.63
Hence, the company should deposit ₹ 39745.63 every year into the sinking fund.

CASE STUDY

Question 14.
A veterinary doctor was examining a sick cat brought by a pet lover. When it was brought to the hospital, it was already dead. The pet lover wanted to find its time of death. He took the temperature of the cat at 11.30 p.m. which was 94.6°F. He took the temperature again after one hour; the temperature was lower than the first observation, it was 93.4°F. The room in which the cat was put is always at 70°F. The normal temperature of the cat is taken as 98.6°F when it was alive. The doctor estimated the time of death using Newton’s law of cooling which is governed by the differential equation: \(\frac{d T}{d t}\) ∝ (T – 70), where 70°F is the room temperature and T is the temperature of the object at time t.
Substituting the two different observations of T and t made, in the solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d T}{d t}\) = k(T – 70) where k is a constant of proportion, time of death is calculated.

(i) What is the degree of the differential equation? Also, find the solution of the differential equation. (2)
Answer:
The given differential equation is
\(\frac{d T}{d t}\) = k(T – 70)
Since there is only one constant available in the given equation, therefore, degree of this differential equation is one.
The given equation can be written as:
\(\frac{d T}{(T-70)}\) = kdt
Integrating both sides we get
log|T – 70| = kt + C

(ii) Find the value of integration constant if it is given that t = 0, when T = 72. If the temperature was measured 2 hours after 11.30 p.m., will the time of death change ? (2)
Answer:
We have,
log |T – 70| = kt + C
Putting the value of t = 0, T = 72, we get
C = log 2
So the time of death is independent of all other factors.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economic with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 10 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Term 2 Set 10 with Solutions

General Instructions :

• This is a subjective question paper containing 13 questions.
• This paper contains 5 questions of 2 marks each, 5 questions of 3 marks each and 3 questions of 5 marks each.
• 2 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 30-50 words.
• 3 marks questions are Short Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 50-80 words.
• 5 marks questions are Long Answer Type Questions and are to be answered in 80-120 words.
• This question paper contains Case/Source Based Questions.

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 2 Hours

Short Answer (SA) Type I Questions (2 Marks)

Question 1.
If the Real GDP is t 3,000 and price index is 175, then calculate the Nominal GDP. What does the price index of 175 indicate?
Or
“All producer goods are not capital goods”. Do you agree?
Answer:
Given, Real Gross Domestic Product = ₹3,000 and Price Index = 175
We know that,
\(\begin{aligned}
\text { Price Index } &=\frac{\text { Nominal GDP }}{\text { Real GDP }} \times 100 \\
175 &=\frac{\text { Nominal GDP }}{3,000} \times 100
\end{aligned}\)
Nominal GDP = 175 x 30= ₹5,250

The price index of 175 indicates that as compared to the base year, the prices have increased by 75% in current year.
Or
Yes, I agree that all producer goods are not capital goods, because producer goods includes

• Goods which are used as raw material like wood, used to make furniture.
• Goods which are used as fixed assets like plant and machinery.

Question 2.
“Investment demand includes financial investment like purchase of shares from secondary market.” Do you agree?
Or
What do you mean by consumption function?
Answer:
No, I do not agree. The term investment demand refers to the demand for real investment and not financial investment.

Real investment is concerned with the increase in stock of capital assets such as tools, equipments, inventories and also increase in stock of consumer goods.

Thus, it does not include investment in shares and securities.
Or
The functional relationship between the consumption expenditure and the income is known as consumption function. Symbolically,
C = f(Y), which is read as, ‘Consumption is a function of income’.

Consumption function in terms of an algebric expression can be written as C = \(\bar{C}\) + bY where, C = Consumption Expenditure
\(\bar{C}\) = Autonomous Consumption at Zero Level of Income
b = Marginal Propensity to Consume
Y = Income

Question 3.
Write a short note on G-20.
Or
Write a short note on BRICS.
Answer:
G-20 It is an international organisation comprising of the governments and Central Bank governors of 20 major economies.

It was founded in 1999 with an objective to study, review and promote high level discussions of measures to promote international financial stability.

The members include 19 individual countries, viz. Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States alongwith the European Union.

Or BRICS BRICS is the acronym representing association of five major emerging national economies, viz. Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

All the member countries are leading developing or newly industrialised countries and are characterised by their fast growing economies and those who significantly influence their regional affairs.

It was formed in 2011 and works on the principles of non-interference, equality and mutual benefit.

Which among mex rch2x pdf available in my website.

Question 4.
State whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) When Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is zero, the value of the investment multiplier will also be zero.
(ii) Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is the ratio between consumption and income.
Answer:

1. The given statement is false. When the value of MPC is zero, then the value of investment multiplier will be one as is proved below
   Investment Multiplier (K) = \(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{MPC}}=\frac{1}{1-0}=\frac{1}{1}=1\)
2. The given statement is false. MPC is the ratio between Change in Total Consumption (ΔC) and Change in Total Income (ΔY).

Question 5.
Observe the data given below carefully and answer the question
Trends in Output Growth in Different Sectors, 1980-2015

Above trend suggest that China and Pakistan have experienced decline in the growth of service sector while it increased in India. Give reason why?
Answer:
India have experienced increase in GDP contribution of service sector between 1980-90 to 2014-18 due to increase in employment and skill formation as compared to rest of the two countries.

Short Answer (SA) Type II Questions (3 Marks)

Question 6.
Briefly mention salient demographic indicators of India, China and Pakistan.
Answer:
Demography is the study of population of the country. The components of the demographic profile of India, China and Pakistan are as follows (any three)

• The population of Pakistan is least as compared to the other two countries in absolute numbers and accounts for approximately about one-tenth of China or India.
• China has the highest population among the three countries but due to its geographical area, its density of population is the lowest.
• The growth rate of population is highest in Pakistan followed by India and China. Through the introduction of One-child policy by China in the late 1970s, they controlled the growth rate of population.
• The sex ratio is low and biased against females in all the three countries. Preference for male child is high in all these countries.
• Urbanisation is high in both Pakistan and China with India having about 34% of its people living in urban areas.

Question 7.
Differentiate between stock and flow.
Or
Explain how ‘distribution of Gross Domestic Product’ is a limitation in taking Gross Domestic Product as an index of welfare.
Answer:
Difference between stock and flow (any three)

Or
If the Gross Domestic Product of a country is rising sharply, it may not necessarily indicate welfare. This is because the rise in GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms. It means the gap between the rich and poor is widening due to these inequalities in the distribution of income. It means welfare of the common people does not rise with the rise in GDP.

Question 8.
In an economy, the equilibrium level of income is ₹12,000 crore. The ratio of Marginal Propensity to Consume and Marginal Propensity to Save is 3 : 1. Calculate the additional investment needed to reach new equilibrium level of income of ₹20,000 crore.

Direction Read the following text carefully and answer questions 9 and 10 given below

An effectiveness of infrastructure management can improve industrial policy and gain national competitiveness. According to research of the World Bank, there are several factors influencing the economy growth effectiveness and national competitiveness, including institutions, infrastructure, macroeconomic environment, health and primary education, technological readiness, market size, etc and also, there are various frameworks, models and analytical tools that can be used in studying the causal relationships between some key infrastructure factors and national competitiveness.

Based on existing models, this study aims to identify and discuss the key infrastructure factors that determine national competitiveness, which in turn influence positively on the total results of industrial policy. The results of study showed that national competitiveness is influenced basically by the level of institutional development and other seven factors, including infrastructure, in turn infrastructure factor is determined mainly by the quality of roads, railroad infrastructure, air transport and electricity supply.

The key institutional traps were singled out that prevent the development of the national economy. These findings contribute to an understanding of the key factors that determine economic growth, help to explain what infrastructure factors allows to be more successful in raising income levels and offer policymakers and business leaders an important tool in the formulation of improved economic policies and institutional reforms. Therefore, the infrastructure may include capital-intensive facilities that are not of public interest. But the public actively uses most of the infrastructure.

Economists refer to such objects as physical infrastructure or infrastructure capital. In the scientific literature, the role of infrastructure is evaluated by the services provided by the physical infrastructure assets. Infrastructure services, such as energy, transport, telecommunications, provision of water, sanitation and safe disposal of waste are fundamental to all kinds of household activities and economic production.

We agree with the Prud’homme (2004), Baldwin and Dixon (2008), that infrastructure is a long-term, spatially bound, capital-intensive asset with a long life cycle and the period of return on investment is often associated with a “market failure” (a situation in which the market system crashes and economic efficiency is not achieved).

For example, monopoly (if there is only one seller in the market, who can abuse its position and put a price on his product much higher than it costs), or a natural monopoly, it is a form of public goods with favourable externalities (including through external networks), which leads to reduce costs in the business, or provides significant social benefit (merit goods). Baldwin and Dixon (2008), in accordance with these features, divided infrastructure into three groups: machinery and equipment, buildings, engineering structures.

Source https://zvww.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S2212567115003226 (Modified)
Answer:
Here, ΔY = ₹(20,000 – 12,000) crore
Or ΔY = ₹8,000 crore

∴ Additional investment required = ₹2,000 crore

Question 9.
Distinguish between social and economic infrastructure with example.
Answer:
Infrastructure means the basic facilities which are necessary for the development of a nation. Economic infrastructure is the combination of basic facilities which is helpful in economic development of an economy. In other words, it directly contributes in the production activities. Economic infrastructure is comprised of telecommunication, electricity, transportation, energy, etc. Social infrastructure is the combination of basic facilities which are necessary for human development. In other words, these infrastructures indirectly contribute in the production activities. Social infrastructure is comprised of health (hospitals), education (school, colleges, etc.) and housing. Both of these infrastructures are complementary to each other and are necessary for the overall development of an economy.

Question 10.
Briefly explain how infrastructural development promotes economic growth.
Answer:
Infrastructural development have a positive impact on economic growth as improvement in transportation, power, finance, etc., expand the size of markets and improve productivity significantly. Infrastructure brings modem technology and foreign investment in all sectors of the economy. It also helps in generating employment, hence generates demand and attracts foreign investment, that further helps in economic development.

Long Answer (LA) Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question 11.
(i) What would be the treatment of following in estimating national income of India?
Explain.
(a) Purchase of a machinery for manufacturing goods
(b) Teacher teaching his son at their home
(ii) Calculate Gross National Product at Factor Cost by expenditure method from the following data.

Answer:
(i) (a) Purchase of machinery for manufacturing goods will be included in national income as it is part of investment expenditure.
(b) Teacher teaching his son at home is the part of services of self-consumption which will not be included in national income as their exact valuation is not possible.

(ii) By Expenditure Method
Gross National Product at Factor Cost (GNPFC) = Private Final Consumption Expenditure + Government Final Consumption Expenditure + Net Domestic Capital Formation + Consumption of Fixed Capital + Net Exports + Net Factor Income from Abroad – Net Indirect Taxes
= 26,000 + 11,000 + 5,000 + 1,000 + (-1 ,000) + (-500) – 2,500 = 43,000 – 4,000 = ₹39,000 crore

Question 12.
Giving reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false.
(i) When MPC is zero, the value of investment multiplier will also be zero.
(ii) Value of APS can never be less than zero.
(iii) When MPC > MPS, the value of investment multiplier will be greater than 5.
(iv) The value of MPS can never be negative.
(v) APC is equal to unity when income becomes equal to saving.
Or
The savings function of an economy is S = – 200 + 0.25 Y. The economy is in equilibrium when income is equal to ₹2,000. Calculate
(i) Investment Expenditure at Equilibrium Level of Income (I)
(ii) Autonomous Consumption (Q
(iii) Investment Multiplier (K)
Answer:
(i) False, because when MPC = 0, Value of investment multiplier is one i.e., K = 1/1 – MPC = 1/1 – 0 = 1
(ii) False, because APS is negative when there are dis-savings.
(iii) True, if MPC is greater than 0.8 or false if MPC > 0.5 ubt not greater than 0.8.
(iv) True, MPS = AS/AY, if AS =0, then MPS can at the most be zero.
(v) False, APC is unity when income and consumption are equal
Or
(i) Investment Expenditure
Substituting the value of Y in saving function,
We get S = – 200 + 0.25 x 2,000 = ₹300
At equilibrium level of income, S = I
So, I = ₹300
Thus, investment expenditure at equilibrium level of income is ₹300. where, S = Savings
I = Investments, Y = National Income/Income

(ii) Autonomous Consumption
Consumption + Saving = Income … (i)
Autonomous consumption refers to that level of consumption expenditure where income is zero.

Here, if income (Y) = 0, Saving (S) = -200
Putting these value in equation (i), we get
Consumption + (- 200) = 0
Consumption = ₹200
So, Autonomous Consumption = ₹200.

(iii) Investment Multiplier
\(K=\frac{1}{\mathrm{MPS}}\)
From saving function, we know that Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) = 0.25
Investment Multiplier (K) = \(\frac{1}{0.25}\) = 4

Question 13.
(i) You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advice the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment?
(ii) “Economic development and sustainable development are two terms often used interchangeably, though they are not same”. In the light of the statement, differentiate between economic development and sustainable development.
Answer:

1. I would suggest the following activities to generate employment in village (any three)
   • There should be multiple cropping in the village.
   • Other activities related to agriculture such as plantation, horticulture, dairying, animal husbandry should be encouraged.
   • Cottage industries should be encouraged.
   • More and more facilities of education, health services, roads, etc. should be created in the village.
   • Information technology sector should be encouraged.
2. The following are the points of difference between economic and sustainable development (any three)

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Physical Education Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 35

General Instructions:

• There are three sections in the Question paper namely Section A, Section B and Section C.
• Section A consists of 9 questions amongst which 7 questions have to be attempted; each question carries 2 marks and should have 30-50 words.
• Section B consists of 5 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted; each question carries 3 marks and should have 80-100 words.
• Section C consists of 4 questions amongst which 3 questions have to be attempted; each question carries 4 marks and should have 100-150 words.

Section – A
(14 Marks)

Question 1.
Explain any two benefits of Vajrasana. (1+1)
Answer:

1. Good for our Digestive System:
Performing Vajrasana helps our digestive system in many ways. It obstructs blood flow to our legs and thighs and increases it in our stomach area, thus improving our bowel movements and relieving constipation. Vajrasana also helps us to get rid of flatulence (gas) and acidity. It ensures better absorption of nutrients by our body.

2. Relieves Low Back Pain:
Performing Vajrasana helps to strengthen our lower back muscles, thus providing relief from occasional pain and discomfort. It also helps to relieve pain caused by sciatica.

Question 2.
Define maximum strength with the help of example. (1+1)
Answer:
Maximum strength is the ability to generate maximum force against a given load. In other words, it is how much weight that can be lifted with a given movement or exercise. It is the ability to act against maximum resistance. Maximum strength is not usually used in majority of sports. It is usually used in those sports in which very heavy resistances have to be tackled, e.g., Weightlifting, shot-put, hammer throw, common lifts or the deadlift, bench press and squat.

The full form of DSLR is Digital Single lens Reflex Cameras. These are the wonderful digital cameras that are so powerful.

Question 3.
Define psychology and intrinsic motivation. (1+1)
Answer:
Psychology:
It is defined as a science which studies mental processes, experiences and behaviour in different contexts.
Intrinsic motivation:

It is defined as the doing of an activity for its inherent satisfaction rather than for some separable consequence. When intrinsically motivated, a person is moved to act for the fun or challenge entailed rather than because of external products, pressures, or rewards.

UML Full Form · Unified Modeling Language.

Question 4.
Write the full form of ADHD and ODD. (1+1)
Answer:
ADHD- Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
ODD- Oppositional defiant disorder.

Question 5.
List any four changes happening in the respiratory system due to exercising. (1/2 x4)
Answer:
Changes happening in the respiratory system due to exercising:

1. Increase in Tidal air capacity:
By doing regular exercise, it has been noted that there is an increase in the amount of tidal air capacity of an individual.

2. Decrease in rate of respiration:
When a beginner starts exercising, his rate of respiration increases. But when the same individual performs exercise daily, his rate of respiration decreases in comparison to the beginner at rest.

3. Strong will power:
regular exercise increases the will power of an individual. As in pranayama, the specific exercise for lungs increases the will power of the doer.• Unused alveolus becomes active:
Regular exercise activates the unused alveolus because much amount of oxygen is required in vigorous activities of daily routine. The passive alveolus become active.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of the Fartlek training method and for developing which ability it is used ? (1 + 1)
Answer:
Fartlek is a Swedish word which means ‘Speed play’. Fartlek training method is a training method that blends continuous training with interval training. It is a form of speed training that can be effective in improving an individual’s speed and endurance. Many runners, especially beginners enjoy fartlek training because it involves speedy work. It is more flexible and not as demanding as- traditional interval training. Another benefit is that it can be done on all types of terrains- roads, trails or even hills.

Question 7.
Mention any two symptoms and causes of SPD. (1+1)
Answer:
Sensory processing disorder (SPD) is a condition in which brain has difficulty in receiving and responding to information that comes in through the senses. It may affect senses such as touch, sight, taste or movement. It may also affect multiple senses.

Symptoms of SPD:

• Children are afraid to play on the swing.
• They feel even the soft touch as too hard.

Causes of SPD:
(i) Genetic Factor: Studies indicate that children born to adults who have Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) may be at a higher risk of developing SPD. Scientists allude that the cause of SPD are coded into a child’s genetic material.

(ii) Low birth weight: It is also considered one of the causes of sensory processing disorder.

Question 8.
What is incision and how can it be managed? (1+1)
Answer:
An incision of skin and subcutaneous tissue is a surgical procedure performed in order to drain an abscess. An incision is a cut or a wound produced by cutting with a scalpel. Management of Incision: Deep wounds should be cleaned with a mild antiseptic and then the area should be covered with an antibiotic ointment and a dry dressing is to be done. If the injury leads to bleeding, the first step is to stop the bleeding immediately with pressure and apply a bandage.

In case a severe incision is seen, it must be cleaned by a physician. Be careful that incision can easily become infected; you should clean the area thoroughly and remove any dirt or any foreign particles from an injured part. Finally, a deep cut will probably require stitches, so one should consult the doctor immediately.

Question 9.
List down any two advantages of physical activities for CWSN. (1+1)
Answer:
Advantages of Physical activities for Children with Special Needs
1. It strengthens the heart muscle thereby improving cardiovascular efficiency, lung efficiency and exercise endurance.
2. Besides improving fitness, physical activity develops social relationships with other children, teammates and teachers.

Section – B
(9 Marks)

Question 10.
Define personality and briefly explain any four physical characteristics of ectomorph. (1+(1/2 x 4))
Answer:
According to Allport “Personality is the dynamic organization of those psycho-physical systems that determine an individual’s adjustment to his environment”. Physical characteristics of ectomorph:

1. The ectomorphs have slim physique along with weak and elongated muscles.
2. They have narrow shoulders and hips.
3. They have a thin and narrow face, with a high forehead.
4. They have flat chest and abdomen with thin limbs.

Question 11.
Explain intellectual disability along with any of the four symptoms. (1+(1/2 x 4))
Answser:
Intellectual disability: Intellectual Disability is a disability or a mental limitation in intellectual functioning such as IQ level, reasoning and learning simple words and solving math problems. It is also known as mental retardation or learning disabilities. Symptoms of Intellectual disability are:

1. They have an IQ score under 70 in addition to adaptive behaviour in the class.
2. They have abnormal behaviour in the class.
3. They have difficulty in solving simple maths sums.
4. They are not able to concentrate in classes for long durations.
5. They have difficulty in sitting for long hours in the class room.
6. They have lower rate of learning.
7. They have poor memory or retention power.
8. They also have a problem in understanding the concepts.

Question 12.
Create a flowchart for common sports injuries while enlisting the sub parts. (1+1+1)
Answer:

Question 13.
List down any three asanas used for preventing Obesity and write two benefits of each. (1+1+1)
Answer:
Vajrasana, Hastasana, Trikonasana are usually performed to prevent obesity.
Vajrasana benefits:

1. Vajrasasana is a meditative asana which helps in the concentration of mind.
2. Relieves pain in the knees, legs and thigh muscles.

Hastasana Benefits:

1. It helps to improve the flexibility of the back muscles.
2. Improves the process of respiration and the functions of the intra-abdominal glands.

Trikonasana Benefits:

1. Helps to improve digestion.
2. It improves the flexibility of the back muscle.

Question 14.
What are the salient features of the Interval training method? (3)
Answer:
Interval Training Method: In this method, the whole workload is divided into smaller load periods with a rest period in between them. Incomplete recovery is given in intervals. In this method, heart rate increases from normal to 180 beats/min. The bouts of load are repeated when the heart rate comes down to about 120 beats/min.
(a) Slow or Extensive Interval Method Intensity – Low (60-80%)
Distance – 400-800 m
Frequency -15 -25 repetitions

(b) Fast or Intensive Interval Method Intensity  –  High (80-100%)
Distance – 50-400 m,
Frequency – 8-12 repetitions

Section – C
(12 Marks)

Question 15.
Enlist and explain Jung’s classification. (1+1+1+1)
Answer:
According to Carl Jung, there are three personality types: Introverts, Extroverts, and Ambiverts. According to him, there are four basic psychological traits in humans suchas think, feel, sense and perceive. During participation in games and sports, an athlete faces different types of situations with their team mates and coach. Problem focusing strategies depend upon the level of adjustment of an individual with his environment. Its aim is to eliminate the factors of stress.

Jung’s Classification Introverts Extroverts Ambiverts
1. Extrovert: Extroverts have the following personality traits:

• They are friendly, talkative and courageous.
• They focus on external reality, instead of internal environment.
• They usually like to involve in social activities.
• They take decisions according to external reality, instead of their own existence.
• They are supportive and helpful in nature.
• They are happy go lucky.
• They are individuals who fit into any environment.
• They are easily influenced and try to imitate others.
• They like appreciation and acknowledgement by teachers, parents and peer group.

2. Introvert: Introverts have the following personality traits:

• They feel shy, are not friendly and are less talkative.
• They are interested in themselves, their feelings and thoughts.
• They are self-centered; face difficulty in social adjustment or situations.
• They struggle to adapt to the environment.
• They try to adjust to the social environment.
• They are very sensitive, rigid and goal oriented.
• They are creative.

3. Ambivert:
They have a mixed trait of introvert and extrovert. In fact, they are not a pure introvert or pure extrovert. Many of us have ambivert trait as we have qualities of introvert and extrovert.

Question 16.
Discuss physiological factors determining flexibility. (1+1+1+1)
Answer:
Flexibility refers to a range of movements of joints. Flexibility depends on some factors such as joint structure, age, body temperature, previous injuries etc. There are various factors that affect your flexibility:

1. Joint structure: Joint structure is the main factor which determines the flexibility of an athlete. There are different types of joints in the human body which has a different range of motion such as ball and socket joint in the shoulder; hip joint has a higher range of motion. In comparison to elbow joint (hinge joint), shoulder joint can move in all the directions and it can perform all types of movement such as flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and circumduction.

2. Age & Gender: Aging decreases the range of motion and flexibility because of degradation of muscles, ligaments and connective tissues. Females are more flexible than males. On the other hand, training enhances endurance, strength, and speed whereas flexibility can be increased at any age with special training, like yoga or proper stretching.

3. Connective Tissue: Connective tissues are responsible for a range of motion in the joint. Stiff tissues and tendons are responsible for less flexibility. With aging and disuse of muscle over time, water content in the ligament is lost. Tendons and connective tissues also become thicker and less flexible.

4. Muscle mass: Muscles mass may reduce the range of motion or flexibility. Athletes with more muscle mass may have trouble extending their limbs. For some athletes, muscles mass is more important than flexibility. Weight training with heavy weights enhances the muscle mass and flexibility can also be reduced as muscle mass increase with training.

Question 17.
Define strength and explain methods to develop strength. (1+3)
Answer:
Strength:
Ability of the muscles to overcome the resistance/Capacity of the body to exert force/Force that muscle can exert against resistance.
Methods:
(a) Isometric exercise
(b) Isotonic exercise
(c) Isokinetic exercise

Isometric exercises: These are the exercises in which no movement takes place while force is exerted against an immovable object. It develops only tension at the concerned joint. It is also called static muscle contraction, e.g., Pushing against a wall.

Isokinetic exercise: This is a type of muscle contraction where both the tension and speed are prefixed throughout the range of motion. This process involves development of maximum tension in muscles which shortens at constant speed at all angles, e.g., Treadmill. Isotonic: Iso means ‘SAME’ and tonic means TENSION. In isotonic contraction, muscle contracts and shortens under a constant load throughout the entire range of joint. The shortening of a muscle’s principle action (length of muscle decreases) is called concentric. The lengthening of the muscle (length increases) after contraction is called eccentric. Such types of contractions are commonly used in games and sports.

This is also called dynamic contraction. In the initial phase of movement, concerned muscles are stretched and then they contract explosively. Because of shortening and lengthening of muscles, there is always a resultant movement at the concerned joint. In majority of the cases, the dynamic muscle contraction is a specific combination of concentric and eccentric contractions. This happens in all explosive movements like jumps, throws, etc.

Question 18.
Briefly explain the administration of Trikonasana along with its contraindications and draw stick diagram. (2 + 1 + 1)
Answer:
Trikonasana (Triangle Pose): Stand straight. Spread the feet comfortably wide apart (about 1 meter).

1. Turn your right foot by 90 degrees and left foot by 15 degrees.
2.  Inhale deeply and as you exhale, slowly bend to the right side, downward from the hips, keeping the waist straight, bring your left arm to come up and your right hand comes down towards the floor.
3. Try to keep both arms in straight line.
4. Now, rest your right hand on your shin, ankle, straight up your left arms towards the ceiling in line with the right hand. Palm facing forward. Look towards left arms fingers.
5. Maintain this asana for 30 seconds to 1 minute with normal breathing.
6. Repeat the same on the other side. Contraindications of the Trikonasana: Individual suffering from a migraine, diarrhoea, low or high blood pressure, or neck and back injuries should not perform Trikonasana. Also, person suffering from cervical spondylosis should avoid this asana.