Category: Important Questions

We have given these Economics Class 12 Important Questions Indian Economy Chapter 9 Environment and Sustainable Development to solve different types of questions in the exam. Go through these Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 Important Questions and Answers Solutions & Previous Year Questions to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Environment and Sustainable Development Class 12 Indian Economy Chapter 9

Question 1.
State the important environmental issues which should receive our attention.
Answer:
The important environmental issues which should receive our attention are

• Land degradation
• Biodiversity loss

Question 2.
Why was the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) set up?
Answer:
In order to address three major environmental concerns in India, viz water, air and land pollution, the government set up the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in 1974.

Question 3.
What is meant by environment? (NCERT)
Answer:
Environment is defined as the total planetary inheritance or the totality of all resources. It includes all the biotic (e.g. birds, animals, plants, forests, etc) and abiotic (e.g. water, Sun, land, mountains, etc) factors that influence and depend upon each other.

Question 4.
What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration? (NCERT)
Answer:
When the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration, the environment will not be able to sustain life.

Question 5.
State the two major environmental issues that the world is facing today.
Answer:
Global warming and ozone depletion.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of absorptive capacity?
Answer:
Absorptive capacity means the ability of the environment to absorb degradation.

Question 7.
What factors lead to environmental crisis?
Answer:
If the rate of extraction of resources is above the rate of their regeneration, then the environment will not be able to sustain life and this results in environmental crisis.

Question 8.
What is global warming? Name any two greenhouse gases.
Answer:
The gradual increase in the average temperature of Earth’s lower atmosphere is called global warming. Two greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide and methane.

Question 9.
Which conference resulted in an international agreement to sight global warming?
Answer:
A United Conference on climate change held in Tokyo, Japan in 1997 resulted in an international agreement to sight global warming.

Question 10.
What is meant by ozone depletion?
Answer:
Ozone depletion refers to the phenomenon of reduction in the ozone layer in the stratosphere.

Question 11.
What is the meaning of biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variety of all life forms including animals and plants that can be found either in one location or the whole planet.

Question 12.
Explain carrying capacity of environment.
Answer:
Carrying capacity of the environment may be defined as the amount of natural resources which can be drawn from it and the maximum amount of pollutants that can be discharged without damaging it seriously.

Question 13.
What are natural resources?
Answer:
Natural resources are the resources which have been provided by the nature in the form of land, air, water, forests, animals, sunshine, etc. Natural resources are free gifts of nature. They are foundation of the prosperity of a country. Natural resources may be of two types:

• Renewable natural resources
• Non-renewable natural resources

Question 14.
Explain the meaning of ‘affluence trap’.
Answer:
Affluence means economic well-being. Trap is something in which we get caught and we can not escape out of it. Affluence trap means environmental degradation trap. With affluence or economic well-being more natural resources are used up causing environmental problems.

In rich countries, high level of consumption associated with high level of income is using up natural resources at a fast pace. As a consequence, these countries are getting trapped in a situation of severe environmental degradation.

Question 15.
How does population growth leads to depletion of natural resources?
Answer:
Population growth is the cause of depletion of natural resources. More the number of people, more the demand for goods and services needed to satisfy wants. As the population increases, more natural resources are required to produce goods and services and also the demand for land for housing and agriculture increases. Increasing population has led to more extraction of natural resources from the environment thus resulting in depleting these resources.

Question 16.
‘India has abundant natural resources’. Substantiate the statement. (NCERT)
Answer:
India has abundant natural resources in the terms of rich quality of soil, hundreds of rivers and tributaries, lush green forests, plenty of mineral deposits, vast stretch of Indian Ocean, ranges of mosuntains, etc. The black soil of the Deccan Plateau is suitable for cultivation of cotton.

The Indo-gangetic plains are the most fertile regions in the world. India’s forests provide green cover for its population and wild life. Large deposits of iron-ore, coal and natural gas are found in the country.

Question 17.
How has the supply-demand relationship led to degradation of environment? (NCERT)
Answer:
Before the advent of industrial revolution, the rate of resource extraction was less than the rate of regeneration of these resources, i.e. demand was less than supply. But with expanding population and its growing needs, the demand for resources for both production and consumption went beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources. This has resulted in a reversal of supply-demand relationship for environmental resources as now there is very high demand for environmental resources and services, but their supply is limited and even these limited resources are being overused and misused.

Question 18.
State the consequences of environmental crisis.
Answer:
If the rate of extraction of resources will be above the rate of their regeneration, then the environment will not be able to sustain life and this results in environmental crisis.
The points given below describe the consequences of environmental crisis:

• Development has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers, making water an economic good.
• Intensive and extensive excavation of both renewable and non-renewable resources has exhausted some of the vital resources.
• Decline in air and water quality has resulted in increased number of respiratory and water borne diseases.

Question 19.
The consequences of environmental crisis have increased the opportunity costs of negative environmental impacts. How?
Answer:
Opportunity costs are the costs of the opportunities foregone. By choosing harmful environmental practices, we have foregone such environmental practices which produce a positive effect on environment. Such a choice has resulted in increasing the opportunity costs.

Question 20.
State the effects of ozone depletion.
Answer:
Different effects of ozone depletion are described below

• More ultraviolet radiation comes to Earth causing damage to living organisms, skin cancer in humans and low production of phytoplankton affecting acquatic organisms.
• Influences the growth of terrestrial plants.

Question 21.
State the adverse effects of deforestation.
Answer:
The following are the adverse effects of deforestation

• It leads to soil erosion. According to an estimate, quantity of nutrients lost due to soil erosion each year ranges from 5.8 to 8.4 million tonnes.
• The forests sustain all types of life forms. Destruction of these forests means losing the various life forms sustained by these forests. According to an estimate, at least 1000 species are lost in a year.

Question 22.
Briefly discuss the functions of Pollution Control Boards.
Answer:
Pollution control boards collect, collate and disseminate technical and statistical data relating to water, air and land pollution. They lay down standards for sewage/trade effluent and emissions. Tnese boards provide technical assistance to governments in promoting cleanliness of streams and wells by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution.

Question 23.
Population explosion and the advent of industrial revolution have resulted in environmental crisis. Discuss.
Answer:
With population explosion and with the advent of industrial revolution, to meet the growing needs of the expanding population, the demand for resources for both production and consumption went beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources and the pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment increased tremendously. We are now faced with increased demand for environmental resources and services but their supply is limited due to overuse and misuse. Hence, the environmental issues of waste generation and pollution have become critical today.

Question 24.
Identify six factors contributing to land degradation in India. (NCERT)
Answer:
The factors responsible for land degradation in India are

• Loss of vegetation occurring due to deforestation.
• Unsustainable fuel, wood and fodder extraction.
• Shifting cultivation.
• Reduction of forest lands.
• Forest fires and overgrazing.
• Non-adoption of adequate soil conservation measures.

Question 25.
Is environmental crisis a recent phenomenon? If so, why? (NCERT)
Answer:
Yes, environmental crisis is a recent phenomenon. Environment was able to perform its functions without any interruption till the resource extraction was not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and the wastes generated were within the assimilating capacity of the environment. But today, environment fails to perform its vital function of life sustenance resulting in an environmental crisis. The rising population of the developing countries and the affluent consumption and production standards of the developed world have placed a huge stress on the environment. Many resources have become extinct and the wastes generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of the environment. As a result, we are today at the threshold of environmental crisis.

Question 26.
Give two instances of (NCERT)
(a) Overuse of environmental resources.
(b) Misuse of environmental resources.
Answer:
(a) Two instances of overuse of environmental resources are

• Excess use of electricity leads to depletion of resources like coal and water from which electricity is generated.
• Excess use of petrol and diesel in vehicles.

(b) Two instances of misuse of environmental resources are

• Soil degradation due to improper crop rotation and crop shifting.
• Drying up of rivers due to supply of water from them to dams and reservoirs.

Question 27.
Briefly discuss vehicle pollution and industrial pollution. (NCERT)
Answer:
(i) Vehicle pollution Vehicle emissions are of particular concern since these are ground level sources and thus, have the maximum impact on the general pollution. The number of vehicles has increased from 3 lakh in 1957 to 67 crores in 2003. In 2003, personal transport vehicles (two wheeled and cars only) contributed about 80% of the total number of registered vehicles thus, contributing significantly to air pollution.

(ii) Industrial pollution India is one of the ten most industrialised nations of the world. This status has brought with it unwanted and unanticipated consequences like unplanned urbanisation, pollution and the risk of accidents.

Question 28.
State any four pressing environmental concerns of India.
Answer:
Four pressing environmental concerns of India are

• Land degradation and solid waste management.
• Biodiversity loss.
• Air pollution with special reference to vehicular pollution in urban cities.
• Management of fresh water.

Question 29.
Air pollution contributes towards environmental crisis in India. Discuss.
Answer:
In India, air pollution is widespread in urban areas where vehicles are the major contributors and in a few other areas which have a high concentration of industries and thermal power plants. Vehicular emissions are of particular concern since these are ground level sources and thus, have the maximum impact on the general population. The number of motor vehicles has increased from about 3 lakh in 1951 to 67 crore in 2003. In 2003, personal transport vehicles (two-wheeled vehicles and cars only) constituted about 80% of the total number of registered vehicles thus, contributing significantly to total air pollution load.

India is one of the ten most industrialised nations of the world. But this status has brought with it unwanted and unanticipated consequences such as unplanned urbanisation, pollution and the risk of accidents. The CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board) has identified 17 categories of industries (large and medium scale) as significantly polludng.

Question 30.
What is the relationship between environment and the economic development?
Answer:
There are two views on how economic development affects environment. According to first view, economic development degrades our environment by using natural resources for production of goods and services. Economic development results in pollution in the form of air pollution, water pollution and land pollution.

According to second view, economic development improves environment quality. The discovery of new materials and sources not only use less of natural resources, but sometimes replace them. Thus, with economic development, degradation of environment decreases.

From the above discussion, we find that relationship between environment and economic development is dynamic and complex. It is difficult to decide whether the economic development leads to degradation of environment or not. Undoubtedly, economic development leads to excessive extraction of natural resources and generation of pollutants, but it introduces new processes, materials and discoveries. We should be careful and ensure that the economic development should not damage the environment.

Question 31.
How do the following factors contribute to the environmental crisis in India? What problem do they pose for the government?
(i) Rising population
(ii) Water contamination
(iii) Industrialisation
(iv) Urbanisation
Answer:
(i) Rising population With population explosion the growing needs of the expanding population have to be met and due to this the demand for resources for both production and consumption have gone beyond tne rate of regeneration of the resources. The pressure on the absorptive capacity of the environment has increased leading to environmental crisis.

(ii) Water contamination Water bodies (e.g. lakes, rivers, oceans, aquifers and groundwater) are contaminated when pollutants are discharged directly or indirectly into water bodies without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds. Water contamination affects plants and organisms living in these bodies of water. The effect is damaging not only to individual species and populations, but also to the natural biological communities.

(iii) Industrialisation With rapid industrialisation for meeting the growing needs of population, the resources being used as inputs in the industrialisation process are depleting at a fast pace. Many of these resources are exhaustible and cannot be replenished easily.

(iv) Urbanisation Rural population has started migrating to urban areas in search of jobs and even in rural areas urban lifestyle is being copied by the younger generation. This has led to rise in power consumption, vehicle traffic, etc. This in turn has resulted into faster depletion of resources and air pollution.

Question 32.
What are the functions of the environment? (NCERT)
Answer:
The main functions of environment are

• Environment supplies resources for production Environment includes those physical resources which are gifted by nature. These resources are used for producing various goods and services.
• Environment sustains life Sun, soil, air and water are the essential ingredients of environment for the human life. Absence of these will lead to an end of life on Earth.
• Environment assimilates waste Production and consumption activity generates wastes. It is generally in the form of garbage which is absorbed by the environment.
• Environment enhances quality of life: Environmental surroundings include rivers, oceans, mountains and deserts. Man enjoys these surroundings, adding to the quality of his life.

Question 33.
Explain how the opportunity costs of negative environmental impact are high. (NCERT)
Answer:
The negative environmental impact has high opportunity costs as explained below

• The industrial development in past has polluted and dried up rivers and other aquifers making water an economic good. Also, cleaning up of polluted rivers and replenishing water resources require huge investments.
• The intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non-renewable resources has exhausted some of these
  resources. Huge amount of funds need to be spent on technology and research to explore new resources.
• The health costs of degraded environmental quality are also rising as decline in air and water quality has resulted in increased incidence of respiratory and water-borne diseases.
• Global environmental issues such as global warming and ozone depletion also contribute to increased financial commitments for the government.

Thus, it is clear that the opportunity costs of negative environmental impacts are high.

Question 34.
Name any two movements to prevent cutting of trees.
Answer:
Chipko movement and Appiko movement

Question 35.
How can mini-hydel plants sustain environment?
Answer:
Mini-hydel plants are environment friendly as they do not change the land use pattern in areas where they are located. Also, they generate enough power to meet local demands.

Question 36.
How is solar electricity generated? Where can it be used?
Answer:
With the help of photovoltaic cells, solar energy can be converted into electricity. This technology is extremely useful for remote areas and for places wheere supply of power through grid or power lines is either not possible or proves to be very costly.

Question 37.
Name animals/birds which help in biopest control?
Answer:
Snakes, owls, peacock, lizards, etc help in biopest control.

Question 38.
Given the full form of UNCED.
Answer:
United Nations Conference on Environment and Development.

Question 39.
What did the Brudtland Commission emphasise?
Answer:
Brudtland Commission emphasises on protecting the future generations by adopting techniques which help in sustainable development.

Question 40.
How can thermal power plants cause pollution?
Answer:
Thermal power plants emit large quantities of carbon dioxide which may cause land and water pollution.

Question 41.
Name the fuels used by rural households in India.
Answer:
Rural households in India use wood, dungcake and other biomass as fuel.

Question 42.
Use of which fuel has lowered air pollution in India?
Answer:
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)

Question 43.
What is sustainable development? (NCERT)
Answer:
It refers to the development strategy to meet the needs of the present generation without compromising on the needs of the future generation. Sustainable development aims at decreasing the absolute poverty of the poor by providing lasting and secure livelihoods that minimise resource depletion, environmental degradation, cultural disruption and social instability.

Question 44.
‘Sustainable development is considered as a paradigm shift in development thinking’. Why?
Answer:
Sustainable development implies meeting the basic needs of all and extending to all the opportunity to satisfy their aspirations for a better life, without compromising on the needs of future. The strategies for sustainable development imply the use of non-conventional sources of energy to minimise the adverse environmental impacts. Promotion of natural resources, conservation, preserving regenerative capacity of ecological system and avoiding the imposition of environmental rules on future generations would lead to sustainable development.

Question 45.
Give the features of sustainable development.
Answer:
The features of sustainable development are as follows

• Sustained rise in real per capita income and economic welfare.
• Rational use of natural resources.
• No reduction in the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• Check on pollution.

Question 46.
How can bio composting be encouraged in India?
Answer:
Farmers should be encouraged to use organic fertilisers for production. Cattles should be maintained because their waste is very useful in the form of fertiliser. Earthworm can also be used convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process.

Question 47.
Outline the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India. (NCERT)
Answer:
The strategies for sustainable development in India are

• Use of non-conventional sources of energy.
• Use of LPG and gobar gas in rural areas.
• Use of CNG as fuel in urban areas.
• Use of wind power in the areas where speed of wind is usually high.
• Use of solar power through photovoltaic cells.
• Mini hydel plants in mountainous regions.
• Use of compost made from organic wastes.
• Use of traditional knowledge and practices.
• Biopest control

Question 48.
You are residing in highly populated area of Delhi. Due to over population, your locality harms the environment, suggest any four measures to your neighbours to protect environment.
Answer:
I shall suggest following measures to protect environment

• Avoid the use of plastic.
• Promote the use of CNG as fuel.
• Promote the use of solar energy.
• Promote rain water harvesting.

Question 49.
Enumerate the benefits and limitations of using solar power.
Answer:
Following are the benefits associated with solar power

• It is relatively easy to install solar panels which help to generate solar power.
• Solar panels, once installed, does not require much maintenance.
• These panels provide sufficient solar power during the long summer days and one does not have to face the problem of power cuts.

Following are the limitations associated with solar power:

• It is not suitable for areas where sunlight is less or which are generally overcast.
• Solar power is not available at night.
• The initial cost of establishing solar panels is more ahd it requires active action by the consumers.

Question 50.
Explain the relevance of intergenerational equity in the definition of sustainable development. (NCERT)
Answer:
Sustainable development in itself makes it obligatory for the development process to be such that the basic needs of not only the present generation, but also of the future generations are taken care of. It becomes the moral duty of this generation to handover the Earth to the future generation in good form.

Therefore, if the resources are overused or misused, they will deplete so fast that the production capacity of the future generations would not be sustainable. Sustainable development aims at maximising the welfare of both present and future generations. It does not mean hindering the existing pace of economic growth, but refers to a judicious or optimum utilisation of resources in such a manner that pace of economic growth sustains with intergenerational equity.

Question 51.
Keeping in view your locality, describe any four strategies of sustainable development. (NCERT)
Answer:
Four strategies of sustainable development opted in our locality are:
(i) Use of eco-friendly fuel (CNG, LPG) The fuels such as petrol and diesel emit huge amount of carbon dioxide that add to the green house impact. In order to control pollution, the use of CNG and LPG should be promoted. These fuels are cleaner and eco-friendly. Also, pooling of vehicles in the locality should be promoted.

(ii) Use of renewable resources (Wind power) India being a tropical country is well endowed with sunlight, water and wind energy. These natural resources are renewable and pollution free. Thus, attempts should be made to harness solar and wind energy by employing different technologies and to go for rain water harvesting. It would help in sustainable economic development.

(iii) Recyclable products The household waste materials like newspapers, old bottles, used batteries, etc should be accumulated and should be distinguished as biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes. The biodegradable wastes are those wastes that can be decomposed and can be used as manure for organic farming. The non-biodegradable wastes like plastic, etc should be recycled and re-used. Use of polythene bags should be discouraged.

(iv) Judicious use of electricity Electricity is a resource which is used in all households in our locality. It is one such resource which is already in short supply and may not be available to future generations, if we do not start using it judiciously. Therefore, the easiest strategy for sustainable development is to use power in an efficient manner without wasting it. This can be done by using energy efficient equipments.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What are the examples of abiotic elements of the environment?
(a) Birds, animals, plants and forests
(b) Air, water, land, rocks and sunlight
(c) Birds, animals, air and water
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Air, water, land, rocks and sunlight

Hint:
Environment includes the biotic and abiotic factors that influence each other. While all living elements—the birds, animals and plants, forests, fisheries etc are biotic elements and abiotic elements include air, water, land etc. Rocks and sunlight are all examples of abiotic elements of the environment.

Question 2.
Environment is defined as the total of planetary inheritance and the totality of
(a) non-planetary inheritance
(b) all natural resources
(c) all resources
(d) all biotic factors
Answer:
(c) all resources

Hint:
Environment is nothing but the sum total of all surroundings of a living organism, including natural forces and other living things, which provide conditions for development and growth as well as danger and damage. So, it is the total of planetary inheritance and the totality of all resources.

Question 3.
What are the factors responsible for global warming?
(a) Burning of fossil fuel
(b) Deforestation
(c) Farming
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
Factors that may be contributing to global warming are the burning of coal and petroleum products (sources of carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, ozone), deforestation, which increases the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Farming is also a reason as livestock are grazed at a large scale and methane gas released from animal waste.

Question 4.
The problem of ozone depletion is caused by high levels of and compounds in the stratosphere.
(a) methane and chlorine
(b) chlorine and bromine
(c) bromine and carbon-dioxide
(d) carbon-dioxide and methane
Answer:
(b) chlorine and bromine

Question 5.
Households in rural areas generally use wood, dung cake or other biomass as fuel. This practice has several adverse effects on environment. To rectify these effects, what steps was taken?
(a) Providing subsidy on LPG
(b) Loans and subsidy for gobar gas plant
(c) Entourage to use fossil fuel
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
According to Herman Daly, a leading environmental economist, what should be done to achieve sustainable development?
1. Limiting the human population
2. Technological progress should be input efficient
3. Renewable resources should not be highly extracted
4. Non-renewable resources use should hot exceed its subtitutes creation
(a) Only 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 7.
When is the environment fails to perform its third and vital function of life sustenance?
1. Resource extraction is above the rate of regeneration
2. Wastes generated are within the assimilating capacity
3. Due to global warming
4. Due to ozone depletion
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both 3 and 4
(c) Only 1
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Both 1 and 2

Question 8.
The resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of the resource and the wastes generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment. When this is not so, the environment fails to perform its third and vital function of life sustenance and this results in an environmental crisis.
Why environmental problem did not arise before industrialisation?
(a) Demand for environmental resources and services was much less than their supply
(b) People were not aware about environmental resources
(c) Population was within the absorptive capacity
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Hint:
Before countries took to industrialisation, the demand for environmental resources and services was much less than their supply. This meant that pollution was within the absorptive capacity of the environment and the rate of resource extraction was less than the rate of regeneration of these resources.

Question 9.
In order to address major environmental concerns in India, the government set up the Central Pollution Control Board.
These concerns are
1. Air pollution
2. Water Pollution
3. Land pollution
4. Noise pollution
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Both 1 and 2

Question 10.
Since thermal and hydro power plants have adverse environmental impacts. Which sources can be used as its alternative?
(a) Wind power
(b) Solar power
(c) Fossil fuel
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Hint:
Wind power and solar power can be used as an alternative to burning fossil fuels. They are plentiful, renewable, widely distributed, clean, produces no greenhouse gas emissions during operation, consumes no water, and uses little land.

Question 11 .
……… aims at promoting the kind of development that minimises environmental problems and meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.
(a) Environmental development
(b) Economic development
(c) Overall development
(d) Sustainable development
Answer:
(d) Sustainable development

Question 12.
Opportunity costs of negative environmental impacts are
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) low
(d) high
Answer:
(d) high

We have given these Economics Class 12 Important Questions Indian Economy Chapter 8 Infrastructure to solve different types of questions in the exam. Go through these Infrastructure Class 12 Important Questions and Answers Solutions & Previous Year Questions to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Infrastructure Class 12 Indian Economy Chapter 8

Question 1.
What are the infrastructural needs of a developing economy?
Answer:
For a developing economy, social infrastructure like education, health, housing and sanitation, and economic infrastructure related to banking and finance are important.

Question 2.
State the components of economic infrastructure which affect access to healthcare.
Answer:
Infrastructure related to transport and communication affect access to healthcare.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of the word morbidity?
Answer:
Morbidity means the tendency to fall ill.

Question 4.
State any two components of social infrastructure.
Answer:
Two components of social infrastructure are health and education.

Question 5.
What does an infrastructure provides?
Answer:
Infrastructure provides supporting services for agricultural and industrial production and for domestic and foreign trade and commerce.

Question 6.
State any one importance of infrastructure.
Answer:
It helps in increasing the productivity of factors of production.

Question 7.
Enumerate the changes that are observed in the composition of infrastructure requirements as the economy develops.
Answer:
In any country, as the income rises, the composition of infrastructure requirements changes significantly. For low income countries, basic infrastructure services like irrigation, transport and power are most important. As economies develop, most of their basic consumption demands are met. The share of agriculture in the economy shrink and more service-related infrastructure is required. That is why, the share of power, hotel and banking, telecommunication etc is greater in high income countries.

Question 8.
Explain how economic growth can become a dynamic process and a self-propelling activity of change?
Answer:
Availability of proper means of transport and communication, ample sources of energy and a developed system of banking and finance generate an environment of inter-industrial linkages.
In this situation, expansion of one industry facilitates the expansion of the other. Accordingly, growth becomes a dynamic process and a self-propelling activity of change.

Question 9.
Explain the term ‘infrastructure’, (NCERT)
Answer:
Infrastructure refers to the supporting services in the main areas of industrial and agricultural production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce. These services include roads, railways, ports, airports, dams, power stations, oil and gas pipelines, telecommunication, schools and colleges, hospitals, sanitary system and also the monetary system including banks, insurance and other financial institutions. Infrastructure provides support system to economic and social development.

Question 10.
Explain how infrastructure impacts productivity and induces investment?
Answer:
Impact on productivity Infrastructure plays a major role in the raising the productivity of primary, secondary and tertiary sector. Productivity of primary sector has increased due to the provision of better irrigation facilities. Productivity of secondary sector has increased because of development in energy sector and tertiary sector has benefitted by changes in transportation and communication sector. Induces investment A well-developed infrastructure attracts foreign investors. Thus, infrastructure induces investment and increases profitability.

Question 11.
Differentiate between social and economic infrastructure.
Answer:
Difference between social and economic infrastructure

Social Infrastructure	Economic Infrastructure
It helps the economic system from outside, (i.e. indirectly)	It helps the economic system from inside, (i.e. directly)
It improves the quality of human resources.	It improves the quality of economic resources.
Expenditure on it will raise the stock of human capital over time.	Expenditure on it will raise the stock of physical capital over time.
For example, health, education and housing.	For example, energy, transport and communication.

Question 12.
What is the state of rural infrastructure in India? (NCERT)
Answer:
State of infrastructure in rural India can be understood from the following points

• Inspite of the technological progress, women of rural India are still using bio-fuels to meet their daily energy requirements. About 90% of the rural households use bio-fuels for cooking.
• The Census 2001 shows that in rural India, only 56% households have an electricity connection and 43% still use kerosene.
• Tap water availability is limited to only 24% rural households. About 76% of the population drinks water from open resources such as wells, ponds etc. Women go long distances to fetch water for their basic needs.
• Access to improved sanitation in rural areas was only 20%.

Question 13.
Explain the two categories into which infrastructure is divided. How are both interdependent? (NCERT)
Answer:
Infrastructure is broadly categorised into:
(i) Social infrastructure: It refers to the core elements of society which serve as a foundation for the process of social development of a country. It contributes to economic processes indirectly and from outside the system of production and distribution, e.g. Educational institutions, hospitals, sanitary conditions, housing facilities etc. Social infrastructure promotes social well-being.

(ii) Economic infrastructure: It refers to all such elements of economic change which serve as a foundation for the process of economic growth. They help in the process of production directly, e.g. Transportation, communication, energy/ power etc. Quality of economic infrastructure can be improved by improving social infrastructure. Thus, these infrastructures support each other. Hence, they both are interdependent.

Question 14.
How do infrastructure facilities boost production? (NCERT)
Answer:
Infrastructural facilities increase production of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life of its people.
Infrastructure plays a major role in raising the productivity in all the three sectors, viz. primary, secondary and the ternary sector.

• Productivity in primary sector is increased because irrigation facilities have reduced the dependence on monsoons.
• Productivity in the secondary sector has increased due to the improvements made in the energy sector.
• Productivity in the tertiary sector has increased due to the improvements made in the means of transportation and communication.

Also, social infrastructure increases the quality of life of workers, thereby increasing their efficiency. Healthcare centres, educational institutions and other such facilities develop the skills of the workers, which increases their ability and efficiency to work. Thus, we can conclude that infrastructure boosts production.

Question 15.
Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country. Do you agree? Explain. (NCERT)
Answer:
Infrastructure and economic development go hand-in-hand. Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country in the following ways

• Impact on productivity Infrastructure plays a major role in the raising productivity of all the three sectors, viz. primary, secondary and the tertiary sector.
• Induces investment Infrastmcture induces investment. A well developed infrastmcture attracts foreign investors which opens new investment avenues and gives birth to profitable ventures.
• Generates linkages in production Getter means of transport and communication and a robust system of banking and finance generates better inter-industrial linkages. It is a situation when expansion of one industry facilitates the expansion of the other.
• Enhances size of the market Infrastructure enhances the size of the market by providing better transportation and warehousing facilities. These facilities enable large scale production of goods and services which further help a business to capture more markets.
• Enhances ability to work Social infrastructure improves the quality of life of workers, thereby increasing their efficiency. Healthcare centres, educational institutions and other such facilities develop the skills of the workers, which increases their ability and efficiency to work.
• Facilitates outsourcing India is emerging to be a global destination for all kinds of outsourcing. For example, call centres, study centres, medical transcription and such other services, owing largely to its sound system of social and economic infrastructure.

Question 16.
Investors are reluctant to invest in tidal energy projects. Why?
Answer:
Tidal energy has high capital cost i.e., installation cost. As a result, a tidal power sheme may not produce returns for years. Thus, investors are reluctant to invest in much projects.

Question 17.
Why are State Electricity Boards (SEBs) suffering losses?
Answer:
SEBs suffer losses due to transmission and distribution, theft of electricity, wrong pricing of electricity and other inefficiencies. The distribution of free electricity to farmers is another reason for their losses.

Question 18.
Enumerate the various non-commercial sources of energy.
Answer:
The sources of energy that are usually available free of cost from nature, are referred to as non-commercial sources of energy. For example, firewood, agricultural waste and dried dung.

Question 19.
State the types of conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
There are two types of conventional sources of energy These are as follows

• Commeitial Sources
• Non-commercial Sources

Question 20.
Which sector is the largest consumer of commercial energy?
Answer:
The industrial sector is the largest consumer of commercial energy.

Question 21.
Which is the most important source of electricity generation in India?
Answer:
Thermal sources are the most important for electricity generation in India.

Question 22.
Explain the importance of natural gas as a new resource?
Answer:
Natural gas is a commercial source of energy. Liquified gas is used as cooking gas. It is also used in thermal plants as fuel. Natural gas is likely to play a major role in bridging the gap between demand and supply of liquid hydrocarbon in future. At present, it is being used as a feed stock for core sector industries like fertilisers.

Question 23.
Describe three sources of energy which are mostly used in India for commercial purposes in factories.
Answer:
The three sources of energy mostly used in India for commercial purposes in factories are

• Electricity: It is the most useful and convenient source of energy in India. There are three main sources of electricity i.e., thermal, hydro and atomic power.
• Petroleum: It is one of the important source of energy in India. India produces about 3 lakh tonnes of petrol against the demand of 34 lakh tonnes. The country imports 31 lakh tonnes.
• Coal: It is primary source of energy and accounts for 54% of total energy consumption.

Question 24.
Explain the importance of grid for transmission of electricity.
Answer:
Primary sources for electricity power are unevenly distributed and the generation plants are also unevenly located. Thus, bulky transmission of electric power over long distances becomes necessary. We require grid to synchronise power generation with transmission and distribution of electricity. Grid facilitates economising and increasing reliability. Grid avoids overloading of transmission lines, frequent breakdowns and loss of surplus power.

Question 25.
Can non-conventional energy be developed in future?
Answer:
In the recent past, the Government of India has accorded high priority to the development of non-conventional energy sources which include biogas, solar energy, wind energy, geo-thermal energy, etc. Efforts are being made to develop technology to use non-conventional energy.
There are about 210 sites where wind can be used for generating electricity. Solar energy is also being used through the use of solar cooker. Tidal energy can also be used to generate electricity.

Question 26.
What are the three basic sources of generating power? (NCERT)
Answer:
The three basic sources of generating power are

• Thermal power like coal.
• Hydel (Hydro) and wind power.
• Nuclear power or atomic energy.

Question 27.
What do you mean by transmission and distribution losses? How can they be reduced? (NCERT)
Answer:
Transmission and distribution losses refer to the losses that occur in transmission of electricity between the sources of supply and points of distribution. These losses occur due to the inherent resistance and transformation inefficiencies in the electrical conductors (conducting wires, etc) and distribution transformers respectively. In most of the states of our country, it is more than 20%. These losses can be reduced by using high quality wires of appropriate resistance and proper positioning of transformers.

Question 28.
How are the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth connected? (NCERT)
Answer:
Rate of consumption of energy is directly related to the rate of economic growth as studies have revealed that in order to have 8% GDP growth rate per annum, power supply needs to grow at around 12% annually. This reveals that the demand for power is higher than the GDP growth rate.

Question 29.
What do you understand by primary and secondary sources of energy?
Answer:
Primary sources They are the sources which do not require any transformation before their use. They are directly used e.g. coal, lignite, petroleum, gas, etc. Secondary sources The sources which involve transformation process before final use are referred to secondary sources e.g. transforming inputs of coal energy into electricity.

Question 30.
Why is nuclear power considered to be the best option?
Answer:
Nuclear power is best option for generating electric power. This can be stated from the following points

• Nuclear energy plants produce electricity through the fission of uranium and not through burning of fuels. Consequently, nuclear power plants do not pollute the air with nitrogen oxides, sulfur oxides, dust or greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide.
• Although, the radioactive wastes produced by . nuclear energy may be dangerous for thousands of years, part of the waste caused by the burning of coal remains dangerous forever.

Question 31.
Why is it important to save electricity?
Answer:
It is important to save electricity because of the reasons enumerated below

• Saving electricity helps to save money.
• Saving electricity is important for environment conservation.
• A large percentage of electricity is generated by using non-renewable sources of energy. If we continue to waste it, without employing proper conservation methods, then we will exhaust these sources in near future.
• Reducing electrical usage will result in less carbon dioxide being released in the atmosphere.

Question 32.
India is dependent upon other countries for petroleum products. What are the drawbacks of this trend?
Answer:
Rising imports of crude and petroleum products has led to a severe problem in balance of payments. On the other hand, the costs and prices of a wide range of goods have increased due to global inflation in oil. Inspite of stringent monetary and fiscal controls, the wholesale price index in India has been continuously rising. With such high reliance on imported energy products, a significant proportion of the export earnings, which otherwise could be channelled into productive domestic investments, is used to meet expenditure on these imported products. Therefore, India’s dependence on foreign countries for crude and petroleum products is a negative feature of our energy sector.

Question 33.
State the three services needed in supply of electricity. Should they be in different hands?
Answer:
Following are three services needed in supply of electricity

• Generation of electricity
• Transmission of electricity
• Distribution of electricity

All these services should be in different hands. Transmission of electricity should be in the hands of the government. The government and private sector may operate in the areas of generation of electricity and distribution of electricity. It would bring more and more financial resources in power sector as well as promote competition.

Question 34.
Explain briefly the various commercial sources of energy.
Answer:
The important commercial sources of energy are discussed below:
(i) Coal: It is the most important source of commercial energy. Around 54% of the commercial energy consumed 55% and of total energy consumed has its origin in coal. The important consumers of coal in India are thermal power stations, steel plants, brick-kilns, railways, cement factory, etc, and Coal India Ltd and Singrani Coal Company are the two main producers of coal in India.

The quality of Indian coal is not good, therefor India also has to import coal from other countries. Also, given the present rate of consumption, it is feared that India will use up its coal reserves in 125 years. Also, it should be remembered that the consumption of coal for commercial purposes has risen while that for non-commercial purposes has fallen.

(ii) Petroleum: It is also an important source of energy in India. India has to import petrol because its reserves are not enough to meet its ever increasing demand. About 30 % of India’s imports account for petroleum and petroleum products.

(iii) Natural Gas: It is another important source of conventional energy. It is used as cooking gas in households (LPG) and as a raw material in fertilisers and petroleum products. Now-a-days, it is also used as a fuel (CNG) in cars and three-wheelers.

(iv) Electricity: This is the most important source of commercial energy.

Question 35.
Discuss in brief the various non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
The various non-conventional sources of energy are explained below
(i) Solar energy It is generated by using solar power (power of sun). It is used in the following two ways

• Solar thermal programme in which solar energy is used directly for heating water, cooking food, etc.
• Solar photovoltaic programme in which photovoltaic cells convert solar energy into electricity.

(ii) Wind energy It is generated by using wind power. A large wind turbine usually consisting of propellers is connected to a generator to generate electricity. India is the fifth largest producer of wind energy.

(iii) Tidal energy It is produced through the use of tidal energy generators. These large under water turbines are placed in areas with high tidal movements in order to produce electricity. With its vast coastline, India has tremendous scope to produce this form of energy.

(iv) Atomic energy Atomic energy is generated by conducting fission reactions in a controlled environment. These reactions emit a lot of heat which drives turbine generators to produce electricity. Nuclear or atomic energy in India is generated in 21 nuclear reactors in operation in 7 nuclear power plants. The first nuclear energy centre was established in Tarapur in 1969.

(v) Bio-energy This energy is generated by using cow-dung, agricultural wastes and other biological materials. There are two forms of bio-energy which are given below

• Biogas Biogas plants are set up and are fed with cow-dung and other organic waste. The fermentation process generates gas which is used for cooking, lighting etc.
• Biomass Solid fuel is produced by converting agricultural wastes to pillets and briqullets.

Question 36.
Distinguish between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Differences between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy:

Conventional Sources of Energy	Non-conventional Sources of Energy
These are the traditional sources of energy which are generally bought and sold in the market.	These are modern sources of energy.
In India, conventional sources are being used in total disregard to the environment i.e., these sources create pollution.	These are being developed as sources of commercial energy with a view to check environmental pollution.
Consumers have to pay a price for energy generated through these sources.	Consumers do not have to pay a price for energy generated through these sources.
These sources of energy are exhaustible.	These sources of energy are renewable.
These sources are used by business.	These sources are generally used by households.
Coal, petroleum and electricity are examples of commercial sources of energy.	Firewood and cow-dung are examples of non-commercial sources of energy.

Question 37.
What is the significance of energy? Differentiate between commercial and non-commercial sources, NCERT
Answer:
Energy is essential for all the three sectors, viz. primary, secondary and tertiary sector. It is a critical aspect of the development process of nation. It is also required in houses for cooking, household lighting, heating, etc.
The differences between commercial and non- commercial sources of energy are:

Commercial Sources of Energy	Non-commercial Sources of Energy
Consumers have to pay a price for energy generated through these sources.	Consumers do not have to pay a price for energy generated through these sources.
These sources of energy are exhaustible.	These sources of energy are renewable.
These sources are used by business.	These sources are generally used by households.
Coal, petroleum and electricity are examples of commercial sources of energy.	Firewood and cow-dung are examples of non-commercial sources of energy.

Question 38.
Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy. (NCERT)
Answer:
The energy crisis in India is the result of excessive use of non-renewable sources of energy for present consumption which has created a threat for sustainable development of the country. The conventional sources of energy, especially the commercial sources are generally exhaustible (except hydro-power).

There are three sources of energy which are commonly termed as non-conventional sources i.e., solar energy, wind energy and tidal power, which can be used to solve the problem of energy crisis. India, being a tropical country, has almost unlimited potential for producing all three types of energy.

Some appropriate cost effective technologies are already available which can be used to produce energy from these sources. Research should be carried out for developing even cheaper technologies which would make the production from renewable sources of energy feasible and more beneficial. This will solve the problem of exhausting all sources of energy and will preserve resources for future generations to come.

Question 39.
What problems are being faced by the power sector in India? (NCERT)
Answer:
Some of the problems being faced by India’s power sector are:

• At present, India is able to add only 20000 MW a year. India’s installed capacity to generate electricity is not sufficient to feed an annual economic growth of 7-8% and even this capacity remains under-utilised due to inefficient operation of plants.
• State Electricity Boards (SEBs), which distribute electricity, incur losses exceeding 500 billion, due to transmission and distribution losses, wrong pricing of electricity and other inefficiencies.
• Electricity is stolen in different areas and tariffs are not paid which also adds to the losses of SEBs.
• Private sector power generators and foreign investors are not yet ready to enter the power generation sector in a major way, which has placed the responsibility largely on public sector which is under financial pressure.
• There is general public unrest due to-high power tariffs and prolonged power cuts in different parts of the country.
• Thermal power plants which have the greatest share in India’s power sector, are facing shortage of raw material and coal supplies.

Question 40.
Discuss the reforms which have been initiated recently to meet the energy crisis in India. (NCERT)
Answer:
The following reforms have been initiated by the government to meet the energy crisis:

• Privatisation in power generation Power generation sector has been opened up for private sector, and the government monopoly in the generation and distribution of electricity has been eliminated to gain competitive efficiency.
• Privatisation in power transmission and distribution The Indian Government has approved private companies like Tata Power and Reliance Energy alongwith Power Grid Corporation of India for constructing transmission networks and to look after distribution of power supply in certain states.
• Regulatory mechanism The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) alongwith State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC) has been established in 19 states under the Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998 to regulate tariff and to promote efficiency and competition.
• Rationalisation of tariff Tariff rates have been revised upwards to discourage wasteful consumption of power and bring down the losses of SEBs.
• Accelarated Power Development and Reform Programme (APDRP) It was initiated in the year 2000-01 with the objectives of improving financial viability, reducing transmission and distribution losses and promoting transparency through computerisation.
• Creating awareness Government is trying to create awareness among public towards conservation of energy. Various programmes like National Energy Efficiency Programme (NEEP) that aimed at conservation of petroleum products, have been initiated. Use of non-conventional sources of energy like solar energy is being popularised

Question 41.
Name two NGOs which are working in the area of healthcare.
Answer:
SEWA in Ahmedabad and ACCORD in Nilgiris are the NGOs working in the area of healthcare.

Question 42.
Child sex ratio in India improved since 1991. Why?
Answer:
The improvement in child sex ratio in India is due to the measures taken by the government to ban sex-determination tests and female foeticide.

Question 43.
Name the states which are lagging behind in healthcare system.
Answer:
States which are lagging behind in healthcare are Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 44.
Health is an important component of social infrastructure. What does health infrastructure include?
Answer:
Health infrastructure includes hospitals, doctors, nurses and other para-medical professionals, beds, equipment required in hospitals and a well developed pharmaceutical industry.

Question 45.
What is a ‘global burden of disease’? (NCERT)
Answer:
Global Burden of Disease (GBD) is an indicator used by experts to know the number of people dying prematurely due to a particular disease, as well as the number of years spent by them in a state of ‘disability’ owing to the disease.

Question 46.
Who is an Auxiliary Nursing Midwife?
Answer:
An Auxiliary Nursing Midwife is the first person who provides primary healthcare in primary health centres, community health centres and sub centres.

Question 47.
State the components of AYUSH.
Answer:
Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Naturopathy and Homeopathy.

Question 48.
Explain the reasons of Medical Tourism in India.
Answer:
Medical tourists come to India to avail our health services which combine latest medical technologies with qualified professionals and are cheaper for foreigners as compared to costs of similar healthcare services in their own countries. They come for surgeries, liver transplants, dental and even cosrrtetic care. In the year 2004-05, as many as 1,50,000 foreigners visited India for medical treatment.

Question 49.
Explain how medical costs push down 2.2% of the population below the poverty line each year?
Answer:
Public health facilities are highly inadequate in our country. These facilities are also lacking in quality. So even poor and middle class people do not prefer to use these facilities. So, in case of a medical emergency, they are forced to avail expensive services of private hospitals and health centres. These expenses prove to be a heavy burden on these families and they are forced to sell whatever valuables they have, to fund the treatment. This pushes the families below poverty line.

Question 50.
Discuss how regional inequalities exists in health infrastructure in India.
Answer:
The development of health infrastructure has shown gender, income and regional biasness in India. Rural areas do not have access to or cannot afford medical care. Even though majority of population lives in rural areas, only one-fifth of India’s hospitals are located in rural areas with only half the number of dispensaries. Out of 6.3 lakh beds, roughly 30% of them are available in rural areas. The PHCs in rural areas do not offer basic medical care like A-ray or blood testing devices.

In rural areas, the percentage of people who have no access to proper aid has risen from 15 in 1986 to 24 in 2003. States like Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh are relatively lagging behind in health care facilities.

Question 51.
State the components of Primary Healthcare in India.
Answer:
Primary Healthcare: Primary healthcare system in India includes

• Education concerning prevailing health problems and methods of identifying, preventing and controlling them.
• Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition and adequate supply of water and basic sanitation.
• Maternal and child healthcare.
• Immunisation against major infectious diseases and injuries.
• Promotion of health and provision of essential drugs.

Question 52.
What are the main characteristics of health of the people of our country? (NCERT)
Answer:
A country’s health sector contributes towards improving the well being of citizens and can be assessed with the help of the following key indicators:
(i) Expectancy of life: It means the number of years a normal person is expected to live at birth. A high expectancy means that health sector is quite advanced in the country. In India, expectancy of life has risen considerably from 50 years in 1951 to 68.5 years presently. Also, life expectancy for males is 67.3 years and for females it is 69.8 years. This indicates that healthcare facilities have developed in our country. However, we have to still achieve the global average of 71 years.

(ii) Death rate: It is the number of deaths per thousand persons. A low death rate is good indicator of improvement in health services. Death rate in India has improved significantly from 27.4 per thousand in 1951 to 7.6 per thousand in 2015.

(iii) Infant mortality rate: It gives the number of deaths of infants below the age of one year as a percentage of number of live births per thousand. A low infant mortality rate signifies better healthcare for the mother and the child. In India, infant mortality rate has fallen significantly from 146 to 40 per thousand.

(iv) Incidence of deadly diseases: If the spread of deadly diseases such as TB (tuberculosis), cancer is conuoiled then also it signifies a developed health sector. While the spread of TB, HIV/AIDS and malaria is declining globally, India is still seeing a disturbingly high number of deaths related to these diseases. In 2013, 5.5 lakh people died of TB, 1.2 lakh Indians died of malaria and 78,600 Indians died of HIV/AIDS. 11 deaths per lakh population in India are still reported from a deadly disease, while in our neighbouring countries, it is one or two deaths per lakh population.

(v) Nutrition levels: If the population of the country has access to nutritious and healthy food, then it is also a good indication of the health of the country.

This is an area of concern for India. The World Bank estimates that India is one of the highest ranking countries in the world for the number of children suffering from malnutrition. The 2015 Global Hunger Index (CHI) Report ranked India 20th amongst leading countries with a serious hunger situation. In India, 44% of children under the age of 5 years are underweight. 72% infants and 52% married women have anaemia. All this indicate towards an unhealthy nation.

Question 53.
Discuss the main drawbacks of our healthcare system. (NCERT)
Answer:
The main drawbacks of our healthcare system are as follows

• Expenditure on health sector is 4.2% of total expenditure from budgets of all states. This is low as compared to other countries, both developed and developing.
• Healthcare system in India is not well equipped to fight against AIDS.
• At present, less than 20% of the population utilises public health facilities.
• According to a study, only 38% of the PHCs have the required number of doctors and only 30% of the PHCs have sufficient stock of medicines.
• The PHCs located in rural areas do not offer even X-ray or blood testing facilities.
• Villagers have no access to any specialised medical care like paediatrics, gynaecology, anaesthesia and obstetrics.

Question 54.
How has women’s health become a matter of concern? (NCERT)
Answer:
Women constitute about half the total population in India. They suffer from many disadvantages as compared to men in the areas of education, participation in economic activities and healthcare.

There is growing incidence of female foeticide in the country which is the cause of deterioration of child sex ratio from 927 in 2001 to 914 in 2011. Close to 3,00,000 girls under the age of 15 are not only married but have already borne child, at least once.

More than 50% of married women between the age group of 15 and 49 years suffer from anaemia caused by iron deficiency. It has contributed to 19% of maternal deaths. Abortions are major cause of maternal morbidity and mortality in India. All these statistics present a grim picture of women health in India and are a cause of concern.

Because of poor health, women in rural areas specially, are not able to work and supplement their low family income. Women’s health also becomes important because only a healthy mother can give birth to a healthy child, which will also reduce the risk of maternal deaths.

Question 55.
Describe the meaning of public health. Discuss the major public health measures undertaken by the state in recent years to control diseases. (NCERT)
Answer:
The science and practice of protecting and improving the health of a community, as by preventive medicine, health education, control of communicable diseases, application of sanitary measures and monitoring of environmental hazards, is called public health. In the recent years, government has built up a vast health infrastructure equipped with trained manpower at different levels.

The following measures have been initiated by the state in recent years to promote public health:

• Establishing healthcare institutions
• Expanding the health facilities
• Expanding the facilities for medical education.
• Promoting preventing medicine.

All these measures have helped to control diseases like small pox, malaria, TB etc.

Question 56.
Differentiate the six systems of Indian medicine. (NCERT)
Answer:
The six systems of Indian medicine can be differentiated from the points below:
(i) Ayurveda: Atharvaveda, the last of the four great bodies of knowledge known as Vedas, contains 114 hymns related to formulations for the treatment of different diseases. The Ayurvedic practitioners recommend diet and lifestyle changes alongwith drug therapy. The methods of Ayurveda such as applying herbs and massage can simultaneously be used alongwith other systems.

(ii) Yoga: It is being practised in India from thousands of years. It has references in Upanishads and Puranas composed by Aryans in the Vedic period. The main credit for systematising Yoga goes to Patanjali who wrote ‘Yoga Sutra’ which is the most important and basic text on Yoga. Yoga is defined as an art of righteous living or an integrated system for the benefit of the body, mind and inner spirit.

(iii) Unani: This also means ‘Greek medicine’, and is a form of traditional medicine widely practised in South Asia. Unani medicine is based on the concept of the four humours, Phlegm, Blood, Yellow bile and Black bile. Unani medicine first arrived in India with establishment of Delhi Sultanate (1206-1527 CE) and muslim rule over North India and subsequently flourished under Mughal empire.

(iv) Siddha: It comes from the word siddhi which means an object to attain perfection or heaven. Siddhi is attained through meditation which cures mental illness and promotes mental, emotional and physical well-being.

(v) Naturopathy: It heals with the power of nature as it assumes that all healing powers are within our body. It uses the inbuilt immune system of the human body for curing. Naturopathy regards that we fall ill only when we go against nature. An ailing body can purify and recover itself with thorough rest and fasting or having natural diet which helps in healing.

(vi) Homeopathy: It consists of two words ‘homeo1 meaning similar and ‘pathos’ meaning suffering. In this system, a drug and a disease that produces similar symptoms are believed to be having a neutralising effect on each other. Thus, the homeopathic treatment is based on symptoms the body is showing and medication is given accordingly. It is popular among the people due to its remarkable healing capacity. Also, its remedies are free from side effects.

Question 57.
How can we increase the effectiveness of healthcare programmes? (NCERT)
Answer:
We can increase the effectiveness of healthcare programmes in the following manner:

• The wide gap between rural and urban areas, poor and rich in utilising healthcare facilities must be addressed through more investment in health facilities in rural and backward areas by the government as private investment is not forthcoming in these areas.
• Women’s health across the country should be taken into greater focus as a healthy mother gives birth to a healthy offspring and health status of population can be improved.
• Regulated private sector health services, NGOs and community participation can improve the effectiveness of healthcare facilities and play an important role in spreading health awareness.
• Indian system of medicine including Ayurveda and Naturopathy should be explored and used to support public health as they are based on natural healing and are of preventive nature.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Infrastructure is the backbone of the economy. From the following, which of the services are provided by the infrastructure to the economy?
(i) Power
(ii) Communication
(iii) Education
(iv) Transportation
(v) Health
(vi) Banking
(a) (i) (ii) (iv) (vi)
(b) (i) (iv) (v) (vi)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (vi)
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Hint:
Infrastructure refers to structures, systems and facilities securing in an economy. It provides power, communication, banking, transportation, road, highways and social services, health, education, sanitation, housing etc to the economy.

Question 2.
Traditionally, has been solely responsible for developing the country’s infrastructure.
(a) private sector
(b) households
(c) government
(d) foreign sector
Answer:
(c) government

Hint:
The government is a unit to administer all economic and social activities in the country and providing and developing infrastructure in the country.

Question 3.
On an average, India invests of its GDP in the development of infrastructure presently.
(a) 5% to 10%
(b) 10% to 15%
(c) 15% to 20%
(d) 20% to 25%
Answer:
(a) 5% to 10%

Question 4.
Which sources of energy are bought and sold in the market and bear a price?
(a) Commercial sources
(b) Non-commercial sources
(c) Non-conventional sources
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Commercial sources

Question 5.
Which city uses the solar energy on a large scale?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Thane
(c) Lucknow
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Thane

Question 6.
Which component has highest percentage in commercial energy consumption?
(a) Oil
(b) Natural gas
(c) Hydro energy
(d) Coal
Answer:
(d) Coal

Hint:
Commercial energy consumption includes coal with the largest share above 50%, followed by oil at above 30%.

Question 7.
Hospitals and universities are the part of
(a) social infrastructure
(b) economic infrastructure
(c) political infrastructure
(d) legal infrastructure
Answer:
(a) social infrastructure

Hint:
Social infrastructure is a foundation of social development process of a country. It includes, hospitals, universities, education, sanitation, housing, water supply etc.

Question 8.
Which of the two are the most important sources of electricity generation in India?
(a) Hydro electricity and nuclear electricity
(b) Nuclear electricity and thermal electricity
(c) Thermal electricity and hydro electricity
(d) Solar electricity and nuclear electricity
Answer:
(c) Thermal electricity and hydro electricity

Question 9.
In India, about 1/4th of total electricity generated is lost because of
(a) theft of electricity
(b) wrong pricing of electricity
(c) subsidies to farmers
(d) transmission and distribution losses
Answer:
(d) transmission and distribution losses

Hint:
In India, average transmission and distribution losses have been official indicating as 25% of total electricity generated by state electricity boards.

Question 10.
Health infrastructure should be accessible to all the people easily. Health infrastructure includes
(a) hospitals, doctors and nurses
(b) para-medical professionals and pharmaceutical industry
(c) beds and equipments
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
Health infrastructure includes hospital, doctors, nurses and other para-medical professionals, beds, equipment required in hospitals and as we developed pharmaceutical industry.

Question 11.
Approx 70% of the hospitals running in India belongs to
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) foreign sector
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) private sector

Hint:
In recent time, private health infrastructure has grown largely. About 70% of the hospitals in india are running by private sectorm e.g. Max and Apollo hospital.

Question 12.
In India, health infrastructure comprise
(a) public sector
(b) private sector
(c) external sector
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Hint:
The presence of health infrastructure is not enough but it should be accessible to all the people easily. Therefore in India, health infrastructure facilities are provided by both public and private sector.

We have given these Economics Class 12 Important Questions Indian Economy Chapter 7 Employment and Unemployment to solve different types of questions in the exam. Go through these Employment and Unemployment Class 12 Important Questions and Answers Solutions & Previous Year Questions to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Employment and Unemployment Class 12 Indian Economy Chapter 7

Question 1.
State the importance of studying the worker population ratio.
Answer:
It is important to study the worker population ratio because it gives an insight on the employment situation of the country.

Question 2.
Who is a worker? (NCERT)
Answer:
A worker is an individual who is doing some productive work to earn a living.

Question 3.
Raj is going to school. When he is not in school, you will find him working in his farm. Can you consider him a worker? Why? NCERT
Answer:
Raj is not a worker because he is not actively engaged in production activity. Workers include all those who are fit for work and are willing and available to work. Workers do not include children, old people, handicapped etc.

Question 4.
Meena is a housewife. Besides taking care of household chores, she works in the cloth shop which is owned and operated by her husband. Can she be considered a worker? Why? (NCERT)
Answer:
Meena is a self-employed worker. Even though she is working in her husband’s cloth shop, she will be considered as a worker.

Question 5.
Who is a casual wage labourer? (NCERT)
Answer:
Those people who are not hired by their employers on a regular/permanent basis and do not get social security benefits, are said to be casual workers/ labourers, e.g. Construction workers.

Question 6.
What is meant by employment?
Answer:
Employment means an activity which helps an individual to earn his living.

Question 7.
Who are self-employed workers?
Answer:
The workers who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood are referred to as self-employed workers.

Question 8.
Who are hired workers?
Answer:
Those people who are hired by others and are paid wages or salaries as a reward for their services are called hired workers.

Question 9.
Which type of work is preferred by female workers? Why?
Answer:
Female workers give preference to self-employment. It is because women, both in rural and urban areas are less mobile.

Question 10.
Explain the term ‘casualisation of workforce’.
Answer:
The movement of labour from regular salaried work to casual wage work is referred to as casualisation of workforce.

Question 11.
What is meant by ‘jobless growth’?
Answer:
It is a phenomenon which means that the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country is rising but without a corresponding increase in employment opportunities.

Question 12.
Explain the meaning of informalisation of workforce.
Answer:
It implies that there is a continuous decline in the percentage of workforce in the formal sector and a corresponding rise in the percentage of workers in informal sector.

Question 13.
Which establishments are referred to as formal sector establishments?
Answer:
All public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ 10 or more hired workers are called formal sector establishments.

Question 14.
Why is employment an important component of the Indian development policy?
Answer:
Employment is considered important in the Indiari development policy because of the following reasons

• More employment will lead to higher level of national income since, production and employment are directly related.
• Employment is crucial to removal of poverty.

Question 15.
Explain the terms labour supply, labour force and workforce.
Answer:
Labour supply: It refers to the number of persons willing to work at different wage rates. It depends upon the existing wage rate and is measured in terms of man days. Labour force It refers to the number of persons actually working or willing to work. It does not depend upon the wage rate and is measured in terms of number of days.

Workforce: It refers to the number of persons actually working. This measure does not include those persons who are willing to work but are not getting work.

Question 16.
It is not easy to maintain an employment growth rate of 2% for a country like India. Why?
Answer:
The rate of investment and choice of technology determine the growth rate of employment. The emphasise on growth of the economy through modernisation of production techniques has resulted in jobless growth in India. The modern techniques use capital intensive method of production, which is cost effective and gives more output by employing less labour. Therefore, it has been difficult to maintain an employment growth rate of 2% for our country.

Question 17.
Define worker population ratio. (NCERT)
Answer:
Worker population ratio is defined as the ratio between the total number of workers in a country and the population in the country, multiplied by 100. Symbolically,
Worker Population Ratio

Question 18.
Analyse the recent trends in sectoral distribution of workforce in India. (NCERT)
Answer:
Distribution of workforce in industrial sector shows substantial shift from farm work to non-farm work. In 1999-2000, about 60% of workforce was engaged in primary sector and in 2009-10, this proportion has declined to 37.2%. Secondary and tertiary sectors showed increase from 16% to 21.5% and 24% to 25.3% respectively. This indicates that the economy is progressing.

Question 19.
Victor is able to get work only for two hours in a day. Rest of the day, he is looking for work. Is he unemployed? Why? What kind of jobs could persons like Victor be doing? (NCERT)
Answer:
No, Victor is employed because he works for two hours daily for which he is paid. He is a casual worker. Victor might be doing jobs on a casual basis, such as painting a house, plumbing work, working as an electrician, distributing newspaper, milk etc.

Question 20.
Explain the role of trade unions in the protection of workforce.
Answer:
Trade unions are voluntary organisations of workers formed to promote and protect the interests of workers through collective action. Workers use.trade unions as their representative voice to demand their rights and improve their living and working conditions.

The formation of trade unions was a reaction against the mechanisms of pauperisation, low pay, long working hours, child labour and generally appalling working conditions. Thus, the role of trade unions is to fight against poverty of workers, exploitation and the violation of their basic human dignity and to promote social justice in the global economy.

Question 21.
How will you know whether a worker is working in the informal sector? (NCERT)
Answer:
From the following points, we can know whether a worker is working in the informal sector

• The number of workers employed is less than 10.
• The workers are not entitled to social security schemes.
• The workers are not allowed to form trade unions.
• The workers are not protected by labour laws.

Question 22.
Labour force participation rate is very low in India. What measures will you suggest to raise labour force participation rate?
Answer:
I would suggest following measures to raise labour force participation rate

• There should be drastic reduction in birth and death rates to improve the age structure of population.
• There should be more and more opportunities for women to participate in economic activities.
• The general standard of health of the population must be raised.
• Employment opportunities should be increased.

Question 23.
Compared to women, more men are found working in India. Why is this trend witnessed in India?
Answer:
The participation rate of women in the employment market, for both, rural and urban areas, is quite low. Some of the reasons for such a low rate are given below

• India is typically a male dominated country. Because of this, females are accorded secondary status and parents do not take steps to educate them.
• Even if they are educated, the social beliefs and set-up discourages them to work.

Question 24.
Is it necessary to generate employment in the formal sector rather than in the informal sector? Why? (NCERT)
Answer:
Yes, it is necessary to generate employment in the formal sector than in the informal sector because those who work in the informal sector do not get any regular income and do not get protection from the government. Workers are dismissed without any compensation. Technology used is outdated and they also do not maintain any accounts. Workers live in slums or badly built houses.

Those who work in the formal sector on the other hand earn more than those in the informal sector and also enjoy social benefits. It is thus, necessary to generate more employment in the formal sector.

Question 25.
What changes should be incorporated in the employment policy in the present context?
Answer:
Following changes should be incorporated in the employment policy in India in the present context

• The employment policy should emphasise on both complete and more productive employment.
• Employment policy must have the objective of higher rate of capital formation.
• Employment should be generated in the normal process of development.
• Employment policy should give more emphasis to self-employment.
• Measures should be taken to increase employment opportunities for women.
• Emergence of destabilising factors in the economy should be avoided through greater efficiency in planning.
• There should be an effective reform of the educational system. Emphasis should be on vocational and technical knowledge.
• Cottage industry should be promoted to reduce seasonal unemployment

Question 26.
Give the differences between formal sector and informal sector.
Answer:
Differences between formal sector and informal sector:

Formal Sector	Informal Sector
All public and private sector establishments which employ 10 or more hired workers comprise the formal sector.	All establishments which employ less than 10 workers comprise the informal sector.
Government exercises control over this sector by .passing necessary acts and formulating rules and regulations.	Government has no control over this sector. Except for the Minimum Wages Act, no other act is applicable on this sector.
Workers working in this sector are entitled to social security benefits.	Workers working in this sector are not entitled to social security benefits.
The workers working in formal sector have a right to form trade unions.	The workers working in informal sector do not enjoy any such right.
Formal sector offers better pay scales to its workers.	The pay scales in the informal sector are comparatively low.
Workers working in formal sector enjoy job security. They cannot be dismissed without giving them a due notice and/or compensation.	Workers working in informal sector does not enjoy job security. They can be dismissed without a notice and no compensation is offered to them.

Question 27.
Compared to urban women more rural women are found working. Why? (NCERT)
Answer:
The difference in participation rates is very high between urban and rural women. In urban areas, for every 100 urban females, only about 14 are engaged in some economic activities. In rural areas, for every 100 rural women, about 26 participate in the employment market.

It is common to find that where men are able to earn high incomes, families discourage female members from taking up jobs. Earnings of urban male workers are generally higher than rural males and so urban families do not want females to work.

Apart from this, many activities of the household in which urban women are engaged, are not recognised as productive work, while women working on farms in the rural areas are considered a part of the workforce if they are being paid wages in cash or in the form of foodgrains.

Question 28.
The following table shows the population and worker population ratio for India in 1999-2000. Can you estimate the workforce (rural and urban) for India? (NCERT)

Region	Estimates of Population (in crore)	Worker Population Ratio	Estimated Number of Workers (in crore)
Rural	71.88	41.9	\(\frac { 71.88 }{ 100 }\)x 41.9 = 30.12
Urban	28.52	33.7	?
Total	100.40	75.6	?

Answer:
Worker Population Ratio

Number of Workers = \(\frac { Total Population }{ 100 }\) × Worker population Ratio

Region	Estimates of Population (in crore)	Worker Population Ratio	Estimated Number of Workers (in crore)
Rural	71.88	41.9	\(\frac { 71.88 }{ 100 }\)x 41.9 = 30.12
Urban	28.52	33.7	\(\frac { 28.52 }{ 100 }\)x 33.7 = 9.61124
Total	100.40	75.6	\(\frac { 100.40 }{ 100 }\)x 75.6 = 75.9024

Question 29.
Why are regular salaried employees more in urban areas than in rural areas? (NCERT)
Answer:
Regular salaried employees are more in urban areas than in rural areas due to following reasons

• Education and training Regular salaried employment requires certain educational qualifications and professional skills. Education and training facilities are not as good in rural areas as in urban areas. Therefore, chances of regular employment are higher for urban people.
• Infrastructure Large companies including MNCs are concentrated in the urban areas due to the presence of economic infrastructure and availability of modern facilities like banks, transport, communication etc. These companies hire regular salaried employees, which results in concentration their in the urban areas.
• Agriculture Rural population is primarily engaged in agricultural sector and are not willing to take the risk of leaving their farms for regular salaried employment. This is also a reason for regular salaried employment to be less prevalent in rural areas.

Question 30.
Why are less women found in regular salaried employment? (NCERT)
Answer:
Less women are found in regular salaried employment due to the following reasons:

• Lack of education facilities Female education is not given due importance in India and hence, majority of the women in India do not have the educational qualification and professional skills required for regular salaried employment.
• Discouragement from family In India, families still do not want the female members to step out from the house for work especially if it is for long hours, as in regular salaried employment.
• Family responsibilities Household work and responsibility of children and other family members do not allow the women to devote time and energy in regular employment.
• Wage discrimination Gender based wage discrimination is prevalent in India which demotivates the women in regular salaried employment and they prefer being at home or opt for self-employment opportunities.
• Security issues Rise in crime against women has also been a reason of women withdrawing from regular employment due to security concerns. Late working hours in private sector firms and MNCs are not found suitable by most of the women.

Question 31.
Do you think that in the last 50 years, employment generated in the country is commensurate with the growth of GDP in India? How? (NCERT)
Answer:
No, I don’t think that in the last 50 years, employment generated in the country commensurates with the growth of GDP in India. In 2005, the growth rate in employment was 2.89 % while growth rate in GDP was 6.1 %. The difference between the growth rate of GDP and the growth rate of employment is indicative of the phenomenon of ‘jobless growth’.

Jobless growth is defined as a situation in which there is an overall acceleration in the growth rate of GDP in the economy which is not accompanied by an expansion in employment opportunities. This means that in an econoniy, without generating additional employment, we have been able to produce more goods and services. This is because of the use of capital intensive methods of production.

Question 32.
Name the form of unemployment where more people work than what is required.
Answer:
Disguised unemployment or hidden unemployment.

Question 33.
What is meant by cyclical unemployment?
Answer:
Cyclical unemployment means unemployment which arises as a result of different phases of trade cycle.

Question 34.
State two forms of rural unemployment in India.
Answer:

• Seasonal unemployment
• Disguised unemployment

Question 35.
Name the two forms of urban unemployment in India.
Answer:

• Educated unemployment
• Technological unemployment

Question 36.
What is meant by unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which people who are capable and willing to work are not getting work.

Question 37.
Who are not considered to be a part of the workforce?
Answer:
Children below the age of 15 years and adults above the age of 60 years are not considered to be a part of the workforce.

Question 38.
In which age group, persons constitute the working population?
Answer:
Persons in the age group of 15-60 years constitute the working population.

Question 39.
Define unemployment according to NSSO.
Answer:
NSSO defines unemployment as a situation in which all those who owing to lack of work, are not working but seek work through employment exchanges, intermediaries, friends or relatives. They also seek work by making applications to prospective employers or express their willingness or availability for work under prevailing conditions of work and remunerations.

Question 40.
Sometimes people prefer to be voluntarily unemployed. Why?
Answer:
People prefer to be voluntarily unemployed for the below mentioned reasons

• They do not want to work at the wages that are being offered.
• They are not willing to migrate to the place at which job is being offered.
• They think that the job offered is below their calibre.

Question 41.
Unemployment in India is considered to be a chronic problem. Why?
Answer:
Unemployment in India is considered to be a chronic problem because it has been a long term phenomenon. India is facing this problem ever since independence and has not yet been able to solve this problem. The absolute number of unemployed is increasing year by year. India has not been able to generate enough jobs due to lack of capital and low rate of growth in the industrial sector.

Question 42.
Do you think that unemployment is related to poverty?
Answer:
Yes, I think that unemployment is related to poverty. Poor people do not have enough resources for economic purpose. For example, a poor farmer cannot use the good variety of seeds and equipments. Due to poverty, they are not in a position to maintain efficiency and productivity. Poverty encourages farmers to mortgage their land to money lenders which in long-run, increases unemployment. Also, it is not possible for poor men to have proper education to improve their mental ability. Therefore, poor people are not able to get jobs and are unemployed.

Question 43.
Why is unemployment considered to be an economic as well as a social problem?
Answer:
Unemployment is both an economic and a social problem. Unemployment is an economic problem in the sense that unemployed persons will be consumers only without being a producer. Non-utilisation of human resources due to unemployment involves double cost of maintenance and loss of output. Unemployment is a social problem in the sense that it causes enormous sufferings to unemployed workers due to their reduced or nil income. Many social evils like dishonesty, immorality, drinking, gambling, robbery, etc are the outcome of unemployment. It causes social disruption in the society and the government has to incur a heavy unproductive expenditure on law and order.

Question 44.
Give the salient features of the unemployment situation in India.
Answer:
Following are some of the salient features of the unemployment situation in India

• The incidence of unemployment is much higher in urban areas than in rural areas.
• Unemployment rates for women are higher than those for men.
• Under employment is higher in case of women.
• Incidence of unemployment among the educated is much higher.

Question 45.
Explain role of government in generating employment opportunities.
Answer:
The government generates employment through direct and indirect efforts. The government makes direct efforts at employing people in various departments for administrative purposes. It runs various enterprises and when they result in increased output of goods and services, they lead to further increase in employment.

The various private enterprises that are linked to the government enterprises might also benefit from increased output of these enterprises and thus, increase their output and employment also. This way government also indirectly generates employment.

Question 46.
You are residing in a village. If you are asked to advise the village panchayat, what kinds of activities would you suggest for the improvement of your village which would also generate employment? NCERT
Answer:
I would suggest the following activities to generate employment in village:

• There should be multiple cropping in the village.
• Other activities related to agriculture such as plantation, horticulture, dairying, animal husbandry should be encouraged.
• Cottage industry should be encouraged.
• More and more facilities of education, health services roads etc should be created in the village.

Question 47.
Suggest the measures for increasing employment opportunities for women.
Answer:
I shall suggest the following measures to increase the employment opportunities for women:

• Education and training opportunities for women should be further expanded, diversified and made more easily accessible.
• Residential accommodation for working mothers should be increased.
• There should be much more facilities of creches and child care during the working hours of mothers.
• There should be large scale publicity and building of public opinion in favour of employment of women.

Question 48.
Briefly discuss the types of unemployment found in rural and urban areas of India.
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation under which those who are willing and capable to work, do not get work. Following are the types of unemployment found in rural and urban areas of India:

• Open unemployment: It refers to that situation wherein the worker is willing to work and he has the necessary ability to work, yet he does not get work. He remains unemployed for full time.
• Seasonal unemployment: It occurs in case of agriculture, ice-cream factories, woollen factories, etc which are a seasonal occupation. They have busy and slack seasons. In the off-season, there is no work. The result is seasonal unemployment.
• Disguised unemployment: It is when marginal physical productivity of labour is zero or sometimes it becomes negative. An individual is working but he is unable to add to the productivity or to the output.
• Industrial unemployment: It includes those illiterate persons who are willing to work in industries, mining, transport, trade and construction activities etc. Problem of unemployment in industrial sector has become acute because of increasing migration of rural people to urban industrial areas in search of employment.
• Educated unemployment: In India, the problem of unemployment among the educated people is also quite grave. It is a problem spread across all parts of the country because of massive expansion in the education facilities. These facilities have contributed to the growth of educated persons who are on the look out for white collar jobs.
• Technological unemployment: Technological upgradation is taking place in all spheres of activity. People who have not updated their skills as per the latest technology, become technologically unemployed.

Question 49.
What is meant by seasonal unemployment? What measures will you suggest for reducing this kind of unemployment in India?
Answer:
It refers to a situation where a number of persons are not able to find job in a particular season. It occurs in case of agriculture, ice-cream factories, woollen factories etc.
Following measures may be suggested to reduce seasonal unemployment

• Promotion of multiple cropping, i.e. raising more than one crop on the same piece of land in a year.
• Development of activities allied to agriculture such as animal husbandry, dairy farming, horticulture etc to provide extra employment throughout the year.
• Public investment in rural areas in such fields as irrigation, drainage, flood control, land and environment, improvement of rural roads, schools, hospitals etc.
• Promotion of on-farm investment. Overhaul of machinery, training of farm labour and programmes for eradication of illiteracy during slack seasons.
• Mechanisation of peak season activities so that a proportion of the labour force is permanently shifted from agriculture to non-seasonal activities and surplus labour in the slack season is reduced.
• Establishment of a variety of industries which operate at different times of the year so that labour may be kept employed almost throughout the year by shifting from one seasonal industry to another.

Question 50.
Briefly explain the various adverse effects of unemployment.
Answer:
The effects are explained below
(i) Economic effects: The various adverse effects belonging to this category are explained below

• Loss of output: Unemployment is basically underutilisation of the human resources of the country leading to loss of output.
• Loss of human resources: Unemployment is a situation in which the productive capacity of able and willing persons is wasted.
• Low productivity: Unemployment increases the dependence on agriculture and this results in low productivity per labour employed.
• Low rate of capital formation: Due to unemployment, the income levels are low, resulting in low rate of capital transformation.

(ii) Social effects: There effects are as follows

• Rise in poverty: With increase in unemployment, the level of poverty in the country also rises.
• Increase in inequalities: Unemployment generates inequality in the distribution of income and wealth, thus defying the objective of social justice.
• Low standard of living: Unemployment affects the income of an individual adversely and leads to a fall in his standard of living.
• Social unrest: An unemployed person creates social unrest by indulging in anti-social activities such as theft, kidnapping etc.
• Results in depression: An unemployed person considers himself unwanted and useless, and suffers from depression.

Question 51.
Discuss the various causes of unemployment in India.
Answer:
The causes of unemployment in India are given below

• Slow economic growth In Indian economy, the rate of economic growth is very slow. This slow growth rate fails to provide enough employment opportunities to the rising population.
• Rapid growth of population Constant increase in population has been a grave problem of India. It is one of the main causes of unemployment.
• Faulty employment planning The Five Year Plans in India have not been designed for employment generation.
• Excessive use of foreign technology There is lack of scientific and technical research in India due to its high cost. This has resulted in excessive use of foreign techndlogy which has led to technical unemployment in our country.

Question 52.
How is unemployment different from underemployment? How is unemployment measured in India?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which people are willing to work and capable to work, but still they are not getting work. Underemployment, on the other hand, is a situation in which an individual is working much below his potential. As per 27th round of NSSO, three types of estimates are available

• Usual status unemployment: It is measured in number of persons who remained unemployed for a major part of the year.
• Weekly status unemployment: It is measured in number of persons who did not find any work even for an hour during the week proceeding the survey week.
• Daily status unemployment: Daily status unemployment is measured in terms of number of man days a person was not getting work on a day during the week proceeding the survey week.

Out of these three, the daily status unemployment concept is most appropriate because it takes into consideration both open and under employment. Unemployment Rate by Daily Status

Question 53.
Explain how unemployment problem can be solved in India?
Answer:
Following are the measures to solve the unemployment problem

• The government should try to control the population, so that the number of new entrants to the workforce can be reduced.
• The education system of India need to be reformed to address the problem of unemployment. The emphasis in education should shift from theory to practical.
• Agricultural activities should be diversified into fisheries, cattle rearing, horticulture etc to generate income and employment opportunities.
• The government should take necessary steps to develop cottage and small industries, both in the rural as well as urban areas. These industries are labour intensive and employ more labour, per unit of capital.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Employment can be classified as which of the following?
1. Specialised employment
2. Temporary employment
3. Wage employment
4. Self-employment
5. Term employment Codes
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 3 and 4
(d) Both 4 and 5
Answer:
(c) Both 3 and 4

Question 2.
How worker population ratio is to be calculated?
(a) Worker Population Ratio = (Total Number of Workers Total Population) × 100
(b) Worker Population Ratio = (Total Population Total Number of Workers) × 100
(c) Worker Population Ratio = (Total Number of Workers + Total Dependent Population) × 100
(d) Worker Population Ratio = (Total Number of Workers Total Independent Population) × 100
Answer:
(a) Worker Population Ratio = (Total Number of Workers Total Population) × 100

Question 3.
A situation wherein the worker is willing to work and has the necessary ability to work, yet he does not get work and remains unemployed for full time is refers to (
(a) absolute unemployment
(b) disguised unemployment
(c) open unemployment
(d) seasonal unemployment
Answer:
(c) open unemployment

Question 4.
A situation in which an extra input of labour generates no additional output. This situation refers to which type of unemployment?
(a) Occasional unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Open unemployment
(d) Seasonal unemployment
Answer:
(b) Disguised unemployment

Question 5.
Workers of informal sector includes
1. Doctor, Engineer and Professionals
2. Farmers
3. Agricultural labourers
4. Non-farm casual wage labourers
5. A Central Government employee
6. People working in small enterprises Codes
(a) 1, 5 and 6
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer:
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Hint:
Informal sector includes millions of farmers, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and people working in those enterprises as also the self-employed who do not have any hired workers. It also includes all non-farm casual wage labourers who work for more than one employer such as construction workers and headload workers.

Question 6.
Which sector of worker enjoys more benefit?
(a) Formal
(b) Informal
(c) Casual
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Formal

Hint:
Those who are working in the formal sector earn more than those in the informal sector. They have more benefits like maternity benefit, provident fund, gratuity and pension.

Question 7.
Find the odd one out.
1. Owner of a school
2. Cashier in a bank
3. An accountant in a company
4. Teacher in a school
5. Salesman incompany
6. Construction worker Codes
(a) 3, 4 and 1
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) Only 1
(d) 3, 4 and 6
Answer:
(c) Only 1

Hint:
Owner of a school is the odd one out as he is self-employed and the rests are salaried employee or render their services to others in exchange of rewards in the form of salaries or wages.

Question 8.
If in a country out of 130 crore population, 78 crore are not working. Find the worker population ratio.
(a) 60%
(b) 52%
(c) 78%
(d) 40%
Answer:
(d) 40%

Question 9.
Income earned by a smuggler is a part of
(a) domestic income
(b) foreign income
(c) illegal income
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) illegal income

Question 10.
Without generating employment, we have been able to produce more goods and services. Scholars refer to this phenomenon as
(a) unemployment growth
(b) workless growth
(c) workers growth
(d) jobless growth
Answer:
(d) jobless growth

Question 11.
An establishment with 6 hired workers is known as
(a) private sector establishments
(b) public sector establishments
(c) formal sector establishments
(d) informal sector establishments
Answer:
(d) informal sector establishments

Hint:
All the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ less than 10 hired workers are called informal sector establishments.

Question 12.
Which sector of Indian economy provides highest employment?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Government sector
Answer:
(a) Primary sector

Hint:
In India, primary sector is providing employment to more than 50% working population. Primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, fishing and mining.

We have given these Economics Class 12 Important Questions Indian Economy Chapter 6 Rural Development to solve different types of questions in the exam. Go through these Rural Development Class 12 Important Questions and Answers Solutions & Previous Year Questions to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Rural Development Class 12 Indian Economy Chapter 6

Question 1.
Rural development is important for India. Why?
Answer:
Rural development is important because around two-third of India’s population lives in rural areas.

Question 2.
State the various infrastructural facilities which should be developed in rural areas for their development.
Answer:
Infrastructural facilities such as electricity, irrigation and transport facilities should be developed to promote rural development.

Question 3.
Explain why do farmers need credit?
Answer:
Farmers need credit to buy additional land, tools, fertilisers and seeds, for paying off old debt and even for personal expenses like marriage, death, religious ceremonies, etc.

Question 4.
Why are Indian farmers caught in a debt trap?
Answer:
The Indian farmers borrow year after year and are not in a condition to pay off debts taken at high rate of interest. The debt mounts year after year. This has created a class of landless labourers who are in a debt trap.

Question 5.
Why have Self Help Groups (SHGs) been established?
Answer:
Self Help Groups (SHGs) have been set up to fill the gap in the formal rural credit system which has proved to be inadequate and has not been fully integrated into the rural, social and community development.

Question 6.
Explain the meaning of rural development.
Answer:
Rural development is a process through which attempts are made to improve the standard of living of rural people.

Question 7.
State any two challenges in rural development.
Answer:
The two challenges are as follows

• Provision of adequate credit in rural areas.
• Improving agricultural marketing.

Question 8.
What is meant by rural credit?
Answer:
Rural credit means providing credit for the farming community.

Question 9.
Name any two institutional sources of credit.
Answer:
Two institutional sources of credit are as follows

• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development.
• Regional Rural Banks.

Question 10.
Categorise the borrowing needs of farmers.
Answer:
Borrowing needs of a farmer can be categorised as follows

• Productive borrowings These borrowings include loans to buy seeds, fertilisers and agricultural equipment and implements.
• Unproductive borrowings These borrowings include loans for social purposes such as marriage and festive occasions, or to meet expenditure on illness, death, etc.

Question 11.
Explain how Kisan Credit Card fulfills the credit needs of rural population?
Answer:
Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme is an example of credit facility which was introduced by the government in 1998-99.
It facilitates access to credit from commercial banks and Regional Rural Banks. Under the scheme, the eligible farmers are provided with a Kisan Card and passbook from the relevant bank. The farmers can make withdrawals and repayments of cash within the credit limit as specified in the Kisan Credit Card (KCC).

Question 12.
Enumerate the functions of cooperative credit societies.
Answer:
The cooperative credit societies pursue the following functions

• They ensure timely flow of credit to the farmers.
• They provide adequate credit support, covering all areas of needs of farmers.

Question 13.
Discuss the importance of credit in rural development. (NCERT)
Answer:
The rural economy can grow only if it has adequate flow of finance. It is capital only which can ensure higher productivity in agriculture. Provision of rural credit enables a farmer to buy improved seeds, fertilisers, organic pesticides and equipments. All these inputs help hire to increase his agricultural productivity and his income.

So, importance of credit in rural development can be perceived as a means to break the!vicious circle of low capital, low productivity and low savings of the rural poor.

Question 14.
Explain the role of micro-credit in meeting credit requirements of the poor. (NCERT)
Answer:
Micro-credit plays an important role in meeting the credit requirements of the poor. Under micro-credit programmes, farmers get adequate credit at cheaper rates. Micro-credit programme promotes thrift in small proportions by a minimum contribution from each member. From the pooled money, credit is given to the needy members, which is repayable in small instalments at reasonable interest rates. Micro-credit programme removes the need of any kind of collateral. It also helps in women empowerment.

Question 15.
Write a brief note of Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana.
Answer:
In October, 2014, the Government of India introduced a new scheme called Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY). Under this scheme, Members of Parliament (MPs) need to identify and develop one village from their constituency. MPs are expected to facilitate a village development plan, motivate villagers to take up activities and build infrastructure in the areas of health, nutrition and education.

Question 16.
Discuss the traditional and modern challenges related to rural development.
Answer:
Traditional challenges are those which the rural areas have been facing for a long time. Rural credit and agricultural marketing are examples of traditional challenges.

Modern challenges are those which the rural areas face with the changing times. Diversification of agricultural activities and problems related to organic farming are examples of modern challenges.

Question 17.
Chtegorise rural credit on the basis of time pehriod.
Answer:
Rural credit may be classified as

• Long-term credit These loans are for a period of 5 to 20 years. These loans are required to acquire permanent assets like I tractors, land, costly equipment, tubewells, letc.
• Medium-term credit Such loans generally Stretch over a period of 12 months to 5 years. These loans are required for purchasing machinery, constructing fences and digging wells.
• Short-term credit These loans are for a period of 6 to 12 months. These loans are required for buying seeds, tools, manure, fertilisers, etc. These loans are given to the needy borrowers by cooperatives moneylenders and banks.

Question 18.
Rural banking has not been able to fulfill the credit needs of farmers. Why?
Answer:
Rural banking has not been able to give adequate credit to farmers. This is mainly due to lack of proper infrastructure and instruments to dispense credit to needy farmers. It has also failed to develop a culture of deposit mobilisation, lending to worthwhile borrowers and effective loan recovery. Agriculture loan default rates are also high with high incidence of overdue instalments by the farmers.

Question 19.
As an agriculturist, suggest any two measures to improve the existing system of agricultural finance.
Answer:
As an agriculturist, I would offer following suggestions to improve the existing system of agricultural finance

• The supply of finance should be fully institutionalised and dependence on private sources for credit should be eliminated.
• It should be ensured that finance is used for production. Loans can be given in the form of goods like seeds, fertilisers, etc.

Question 20.
Why is rural development important for India?
Answer:
Rural development is important for India because of the reasons stated below

• Even today, nearly 70% of the population of India resides in rural areas. So, if there is growth and prosperity in these areas, it will fesult in the growth and prosperity of the nation as a whole.
• Rural development will help to create employment opportunities in the rural areas. This will not only raise the standard of living of the rural population, but also check the problem of migration.
• Rural development creates opportunities in . rural areas for education and skill development. This helps to increase the efficiency, productivity, mobility, income and standard of living of the people.

Question 21.
What steps should be taken relating to finance, so that the objective of rural development is achieved?
Answer:
To achieve the objective of mral development, following steps related to finance can be taken

• The supply of finance should be fully institutionalised and dependence on private sources for credit should be eliminated.
• The general interest rate should be low. The banks should charge different rates for different uses.
• The basis of credit should not be mortgage of any security. Production or productivity of land should be the basis for the approval of loans.
• The conditions of repayment of loans should be different so as to suit different circumstances.
• It should be ensured that finance is used for production. Loans can also be given in the form of goods like seeds, fertilisers, etc.
• There should be adequately trained and devoted personnel to manage the financial institutions. The persons should have full knowledge of agriculture and interest of farmers.

Question 22.
Give the advantages and limitations of rural banking.
Answer:
Advantages of rural banking are as follows

• Farm and non-farm output raised with the help of advisory services and credit facilities.
• Food security is achieved. Abundant buffer stock of grains is available now.
• Credit has been provided for self-employment schemes, leading to increase in rural employment levels.

Limitations of rural banking are as follows

• Small and marginal farmers receive only a very small portion of the institutional credit.
• Rural banking is suffering from the problems of large amount of over dues and default rate.
• The sources of institutional finance are inadequate to meet the requirements of agricultural credit.
• There exist regional inequalities in the distribution of institutional credit.

Question 23.
Write a short note on NABARD.
Answer:
NABARD was set up in 1982 as an apex body to coordinate the activities of all institutions involved in rural credit.
The main functions of NABARD are

• To grant long-term loans to the State Government for subscribing to the share capital of cooperative societies.
• To take the responsibility of inspecting cooperative banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and primary cooperative societies.
• To promote research in agriculture and rural development.
• To serve as a refinancing agency for the institutions providing finance to rural and agricultural development.
• To help tenant farmers and small farmers to consolidate their landholdings.

Question 24.
What do you mean by rural development? Bring out the key issues in rural development. (NCERT)
Answer:
Rural development is a comprehensive term which essentially focuses on action for the development of areas that are lagging behind in the overall development of the village economy. It is a process whereby the standard of living of rural people, especially rural poor people, rises continuously.
Following are the key issues in rural development

• Development of the productive resources of each locality.
• Development of human resources by providing opportunities for adult literacy, female literacy, education and skill development.
• Development of human resources by providing health facilities, addressing both sanitation and public health.
• Honest implementation of land reforms.

Question 25.
What is the meaning of regulated markets?
Answer:
Regulated markets have been established by the government where sale and purchase of agricultural produce is monitored by market committee consisting of representatives of government, farmers and traders.

Question 26.
Why do people look for employment in non-farm sectors?
Answer:
As agriculture is already overcrowded and cannot offer additional employment, people seek employment in non-farm sectors.

Question 27.
Name any two non-farm activities which should be developed in rural areas.
Answer:
The two non-farm activities which should be developed in rural areas are

• Handicrafts
• Poultry

Question 28.
Name some horticultural crops.
Answer:
Fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crops are the examples of some horticultural crops.

Question 29.
Name the major states which are producers of marine products.
Answer:
Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are the major producers of marine products.

Question 30.
What do you mean by agricultural marketing? (NCERT)
Answer:
Agricultural marketing is a process that involves assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading and distribution of different agricultural commodities across the country. The agricultural marketing system is a link between the farm and the non-farm sectors.

Question 31.
Which policy assures a minimum income to the farmers?
Answer:
The policy of Minimum Support Price (MSP) assures a minimum income to the farmers.

Question 32.
Which government body maintains buffer stocks of crops?
Answer:
Food Corporation of India

Question 33.
Which period is referred to as the ‘golden revolution’?
Answer:
The period between 1991 and 2003 is referred to as golden revolution.

Question 34.
What is the role of buffer stocks in the context of agricultural marketing?
Answer:
The Government of India has adopted the policy of buffer stocks to minimise the fluctuations in the food prices. Buffer stocks serve as shock absorbers in the economy and provide a defence mechanism against the widely fluctuating price levels.

Under the buffer stock policy, the government builds up stocks of food through direct purchases from the farmers and releases these stocks for sale in the domestic market where prices are increasing. Also, buffer stock operations aim at eliminating unduly low prices consequent to bumper crops.

Question 35.
What is the importance of developing proper storage facilities in rural areas?
Answer:
Farmers are forced to sell their crops at very low prices to traders because of the fear of it getting damaged from fire, rodents or pests due to lack of proper storage. It is essential to develop proper storage facilities in rural areas so that farmers can wait for better price for their produce in the market.

Question 36.
Explain the meaning of the term ‘distress sale’?
Answer:
Lack of agricultural marketing infrastructure often forces the farmers to sell their produce at low prices for fear of spoilage or to pay off an imminent debt. This is termed as distress sale. Farmers tend to suffer highly on account of these sales, because they not only get a low price for their produce, but are also cheated by use of false weights and are charged a high commission.

Question 37.
Write a brief note on ‘Operation Flood’.
Answer:
It is a system whereby all the farmers can pool their milk produced according to different grading {based on quality) and the same is processed and marketed to urban centres through cooperatives.

In this system, farmers are assured of fair price and income from the supply of the milk to urban markets. Gujarat state holds a success story of the efficient implementation of milk cooperatives, which has been followed by many states.

Question 38.
What is organic farming and how does it promote sustainable development? (NCERT)
Answer:
Conventional agriculture relies on chemical fertilisers and toxic pesticides for higher yields of crops. These chemicals and pesticides enter the food supply, penetrate the water sources, harm the livestock, deplete the soil and damage the natural environment. Organic farming is an eco-friendly technique of growing crops, which promotes sustainable development.

In other words, organic agriculture is a whole system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance and enhances the food safety, thus encouraging the practices towards sustainable development.

Question 39.
Has globalisation helped the farmers in marketing their produce and raising their standard of living?
Answer:
Globalisation has expanded the market of the national companies and has allowed various MNCs to operate in India. So, several national and international fast food chains and hotels have been opened in India. These organisations enter into contracts with the farmers to supply them farm products of the desired quality at reasonable prices, thus helping the farmers to market their produce.

Question 41.
Explain the role of multinational companies in rural development.
Answer:
Economic reforms offered the opportunities to multinational companies to expand their functions all around the country. Many multinational companies are entering in the rural marketing.

They are doing well for the sake of farmers as stated below

• They are making contracts with farmers.
• They are motivating farmers to grow desirable food, fruits and vegetables of the desired quality.
• They are providing them seeds and other inputs.
• They are offering them pre-decided prices.

Question 42.
Why is agricultural diversification essential for sustainable livelihoods? (NCERT)
Answer:
Diversification is essential because there is greater risk in depending exclusively on farming for livelihood and to provide productive sustainable livelihood options to rural people. Most of the agricultural employment activities are concentrated in the Kharif season while during the Rabi season it becomes difficult to find gainful employment in areas lacking in irrigation facilities.

Therefore, expansion into other sectors is essential to provide supplementary gainful employment and in realising higher levels of income for rural people to overcome poverty and other problems. Hence, there is a need to focus on allied activities, non-farm employment and other emerging alternatives of livelihood for providing sustainable livelihoods in rural areas.

Question 43.
Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing and create a need for the government to interfere in this sector. (NCERT)
Answer:
Some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing are

• Faulty weighing and manipulation of accounts by traders which results in exploitation of farmers when they sell their products to traders.
• Farmers do not have proper storage facilities to store their produce for selling later at a better price. Hence, they are forced to sell even at lower price to save the produce from decaying.
• Due to lack of knowledge about the prices prevailing in the markets, farmers are forced to sell their produce at low prices.

Question 44.
What are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing? Give some examples. (NCERT)
Answer:
Alternative marketing channels were developed to bring the farmers in direct contact with the consumers. These channels help in increasing farmers’ share in prices paid by the consumers’. Some examples of these channels are

• Apni Mandi (Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan)
• Hadapsar Mandi (Pune)
• Rythu Bazars (vegetable and fruit markets in Andhra Pradesh)
• Uzhavar Sandies (farmers markets in Tamil Nadu)

Further, several national and multinational fast food chains are increasingly entering into contracts/ alliances with farmers to encourage them to cultivate farm products (vegetables, fruits, etc) of the desired quality by providing them with not only seeds and other inputs but also assured procurement of the products at pre-decided prices.

Question 45.
Do you think various measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing are sufficient? Discuss. (NCERT)
Answer:
Government has adopted various measures for improving agricultural marketing such as regulation of markets, provision of physical infrastructure, co-operative marketing and policy measures like MSP, etc. But even after these measures taken by the government, agricultural markets are still predominated by moneylenders, rural political elites, big merchants and rich farmers which are doing private trade.

The current infrastructure facilities are inadequate to meet the growing demand, and need to be improved further. Cooperatives are also suffering from problems like inadequate coverage of farmers as members, lack of appropriate link between marketing and processing co-operatives and inefficient financial management.

Question 46.
Explain the role of non-farm employment in promoting rural diversification. (NCERT)
Answer:
Agricultural sector in India is already overcrowded and suffering from the problem of disguised unemployment. A major proportion of the increasing labour force needs to find alternate employment opportunities in other non-farm sectors.

Animal husbandry, fisheries, horticulture and information technology are the key areas of non-farm activities which have helped in promoting rural diversification. Rural workforce is actively engaged in various non-farm activities to augment their earnings.

Question 47.
“Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security.” Comment. (NCERT)
Answer:
Information technology plays a very significant role in achieving sustainable development and food security in the following ways

• It can act as a tool for releasing the creative potential and knowledge embedded in our people.
• Issues like weather forecasting, crop treatment, fertilisers, pesticides, storage conditions, etc can be well administered, if expert opinion is made available to the farmers.
• The quality and quantity of crops can be increased manifold, if the farmers are made aware of the latest equipments, technologies and resources.
• It has potential of employment generation in rural areas.

Question 48.
Enlist some problems faced by farmers during the initial years of organic farming. (NCERT)
Answer:
The problems faced by farmers during the initial years of organic farming are

• Organic farming requires inputs like organic manure, bio-fertilisers and organic pesticides. Though they are cheaper yet farmers find it difficult to get them.
• The yield from organic farming is much less than that of modern agricultural farming.
• The price of organic food is high, so it is difficult to sell them.
• Organic products generally have more . blemishes and shorter shelf life.

Question 49.
Explain the steps taken by the government in developing rural markets. (NCERT)
Answer:
Following are the steps taken by the government in developing rural markets
(i) Regulation of markets: The government has established regulated markets where the sale and purchase of the produce is mbnitored by Market Committee consisting of representatives of government, farmers and traders. Regulation of markets helps to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions.

(ii) Improvement in physical infrastructure: Through this measure, the government ensures the improvement in physical infrastructure such as roads, railways, warehouses, cold storages etc.

(iii) Cooperative marketing: The government encourages farmers to form producer marketing cooperative societies so that they get better price of their produce through collective sale.

(iv) Supportive policies: In addition to the above policies, the following supportive policies have also been introduced to develop rural markets

• Minimum Support Price (MSP): The government fixes MSP for agricultural output. This policy assures a minimum income to the farmers.
• Maintenance of buffer stock of wheat and rice: When market price falls much below the MSP, then government purchases the produce from the farmers at MSP and maintains buffer stock.
• Distribution of foodgrains and sugar The buffer stocks are distributed among the poor through the Public Distribution System (PDS) at subsidised prices.

Question 50.
Differentiate between ‘Green Revolution’ and ‘Golden Revolution’.
Answer:
Difference between ‘Green Revolution’ and ‘Golden Revolution’:

Green Revolution	Golden Revolution
The introduction of High Yielding Varieties (HYV) of seeds and the increased use of fertilisers, pesticides and irrigation facilities which led to substantial increase in output of cereals is known as the green revolution.	The rapid growth in the production of diverse horticultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crops is known as golden revolution.
It led to increase in the production of rice and wheat.	It led to increase in the production of fruits, vegetables, flowers, aromatic plants, spices etc.
Green revolution made India self-sufficient in the production of foodgrains.	Golden revolution made India a world leader in the production of mangoes, bananas, coconut and spices.
Green revolution provided food security and raised agricultural incomes.	Golden revolution provided nutrition and sustainable livelihood options.

Question 51.
Bring out the importance of animal husbandry, fisheries and horticulture as a source of diversification. (NCERT)
Answer:
(i) Importance of animal husbandry: The following points bring for the importance of animal husbandry as a source of diversification

• Today, this sector alone provides alternate livelihood options to a significant number of women and over 70 million small and marginal farmers including landless labourers.
• Milk production of the Indian dairy sector has increased by more than five times between 1960-2009 with the successful implementation of ‘Operation Flood’.
• Meat, eggs, wool and other by-products are also emerging as important productive sectors for diversification.

(ii) Importance of fisheries The water bodies consisting of sea, oceans, rivers, lakes etc are a source of living for the fishing community. This sector is important for the reasons enumerated below:

• Today, toted fish production accounts for 0.8 % of the total GDP. Kerala, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu are the major producers of marine products.
• Fishing has become a source of women empowerment. Even though women are not involved in active fishing, about 60% of the workforce in export marketing and 40% in internal marketing are women.

(iii) Importance of horticulture Diverse horticultural crops such as fruits, vegetables, tuber crops, flowers, medicinal and aromatic plants, spices and plantation crops are grown in India. This sector is important for the reasons enumerated below:

• These crops play a vital role in providing food and nutrition, alongwith sustainable employment opportunities.
• During 1991-2003, ‘Golden Revolution’ took place. Horticulture became highly productive during this period due to planned investment and the sector emerged as a sustainable livelihood option.
• India has emerged as a world leader in producing a variety of fruits like mangoes, bananas, coconuts, cashew nuts and a number of spices and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
• Economic condition of farmers engaged in horticulture has improved.
• Flower harvesting, nursery maintenance, hybrid seed production and tissue culture, propagation of fruits and flowers and food processing are highly remunerative employment options for women in rural areas.

Question 52.
Identify the benefits and limitations of organic farming. (NCERT)
Answer:
Following are the benefits of organic farming

• Organic fanning substitutes costlier agricultural inputs such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc with locally produced organic inputs which are cheaper and thereby generate better returns on investment for farmers.
• Organic farming generates income through exports as the global demand for organically grown crops is increasing.
• Organically grown food has more nutritional value than food grown through chemical farming thus creating a positive effect on health.
• Organic farming is appropriate for India as organic farming is more labour intensive than conventional farming.
• Organic farming promotes soil that is teaming with life and rich in micro nutrients which can be used for decades to grow crops virtually year round in many parts of the world.

Following are the limitations of organic farming

• Organic farming is labour intensive. Thus, it is beneficial only for small farmers who have abundant labour in his/her family.
• Organic farming is very expensive, the farmer has to carry out the transition, modify the soil structure, etc.
• Organic produce is not traded in many markets, therefore marketing is difficult.
• Organic food prices are not stable and keep fluctuating time to time.
• Organic farming requires a lot of time and greater interaction between a farmer and his crop.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What percentage of India’s population is dependent on agriculture for their livelihood?
(a) One-fourth
(b) One-half
(c) One-third
(d) Two-third
Answer:
(d) Two-third

Hint:
Even today more than two-third of India’s population depends on agriculture which is not generating enough output to provide a decent living for them.

Question 2.
Which one is not a challenge in rural development?
(a) Poverty
(b) Illiteracy
(c) Low productivity
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Hint:
Challenges in rural development includes lack of credit, irrigation, marketing facilities, high illiteracy and poverty and low productivity due to use of old technology.

Question 3.
Which one is not a source of non-institutional rural credit?
(a) Friends
(b) Self help groups
(c) Relatives
(d) Landlords
Answer:
(d) Landlords

Hint:
Non-institutional sources are those sources or credit which are not attached to any formal institution. These include friends, moneylenders, landlords, relatives etc. Self help groups comes under institutional source of rural credit.

Question 4.
Which of the following is/are the function(s) of agriculture marketing?
(a) Assembling and grading
(b) Storage and transportation
(c) Packaging
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
Agriculture marketing is a process that involves functions of assembling, storage, processing, packaging, transportation, grading and distribution of agricultural commodities throughout the country.

Question 5.
Which one is not a government measure to improve agriculture marketing?
(a) Regulation of markets
(b) Cooperative marketing
(c) Development of physical infrastructure
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Hint:
Government measures to improve agricultural marketing includes supportive policies, regulation of agriculture markets, cooperative marketing, development of physical market infrastructure etc.

Question 6.
Which government agency purchases and maintain buffer stocks of food grains (wheat and rice)?
(a) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(b) Public Distribution System (PDS)
(c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
(d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Answer:
(a) Food Corporation of India (FCI)

Question 7.
Which of the following is/are the key challenge(s) in rural development?
(a) Honest implementation of land reforms
(b) Development of productive activities
(c) Improving agricultural marketing
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
Why non-institutional sources are not good sources of rural credit?
(a) They charge high rate of interest
(b) They manipulate accounts
(c) They keep land or other assets as collateral
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
Non-institutional sources are exploiting farmers by charging high interest rates and manipulate credit accounts. They also keep farmer’s land or other assets as collateral security.

Question 9.
Why farmers need rural credit?
(a) To purchase seeds, fertiliser, pesticide and insecticide
(b) To purchase tractors, tube well and animals
(c) To repay previous loans
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
Farmers require agricultural credit to purchase seeds, fertiliser, pesticide, insecticide, tractor, crop insurance, tube well, animals and to repay previous loans.

Question 10.
Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of diversification of crop production in agriculture?
I. Shifting of single cropping system to multi-cropping system.
II. Growing cash crops.
III. Diversification providing ecological balance.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
Answer:
(d) I, II and III

Hint:
Diversification of crop production includes multi-cropping and cash cropping. It is good for ecological balance in agriculture and help the farmers to earn more money.

Question 11.
Diversification of agricultural activities includes
(a) animal husbandry
(b) fisheries
(c) horticulture
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
Diversification of productive/non-farm activities is a part of diversification of agricultural activities, which includes animal husbandry, fisheries, horticulture etc.

Question 12.
Organic farming is a part of
(a) economic growth
(b) economic development
(c) sustainable development
(d) green revolution
Answer:
(c) sustainable development

Hint:
Sustainable development includes organic farming. Organic farming is traditional way of farming without use of chemical inputs.

We have given these Economics Class 12 Important Questions Indian Economy Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation to solve different types of questions in the exam. Go through these Human Capital Formation Class 12 Important Questions and Answers Solutions & Previous Year Questions to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Human Capital Formation Class 12 Indian Economy Chapter 5

Question 1.
What is the main objective of human capital formation?
Answer:
The main objective of human capital formation is to make human beings more productive.

Question 2.
According to you, why do people migrate?
Answer:
People migrate in search of better employment opportunities that fetch them higher earnings.

Question 3.
Name the two categories of health expenditures.
Answer:
Two categories of health expenditures are

• Preventive medicine (vaccination)
• Social medicine (spread of health literacy)

Question 4.
What is meant by human capital?
Answer:
Human capital refers to the stock of skill, ability, expertise, education and knowledge in a nation at a point of time.

Question 5.
Explain the meaning of physical capital?
Answer:
All inputs which are required in the production process such as machine, tools and implements etc are called physical capital.

Question 6.
Name the two ways of ‘On-the-job’ training.
Answer:
Two ways of ‘On-the-job’ training are

• Internal training
• External training

Question 7.
What is the meaning of human capital formation? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
Human capital formation is a process which converts human resources into human capital. It is the process of acquiring and increasing the number of people who have the skills, education and experience which is necessary for the economic development of the country.

For example, if in the year 2014, the number of doctors and engineers in our country were 4,50,000 and in the year 2015, their number grew to 5,00,000, then it can be said that there is human capital formation to the extent of 50,000 doctors and engineers.

Question 8.
Why on-the-job training is given to workers?
Answer:
Firms give on-the-job training to their workers to enhance their productive skills so as to enable them to absorb new technologies and modern ideas.
It can be given in two forms

• Training given within the office premises.
• Training given outside the office premises.

Question 9.
What factors contribute to human capital formation? (NCERT)
Answer:
The factors which contribute to human capital formation are as follows

• Expenditure on education
• On-the-job training
• Migration
• Expenditure on health
• Expenditure on information

Question 10.
Establish the need for acquiring information relating to health and education expenditure for the effective utilisation of human resources, (NCERT)
Answer:
People need to have information on the cost and benefit of investment in health and education. When they know the benefits of their investment in these two areas, they are willing to make more expenditure. This results in more human capital formation.

Question 11.
Discuss briefly how health and expenditure on information are a source of human capital formation.
Answer:
Health as a source of human capital has formation Health is an important source of human capital formation because only a healthy worker can contribute towards increasing the capital stock of the country. A sick worker, without access to medical facilities is compelled to abstain from work and there is loss of productivity.

Expenditure on information as a source of human capital formation People spend to acquire information relating to the labour market, education and health institutions etc.
Information relating to job opportunities and educational institutes enables people to increase their earning potential. Therefore, it is also a determinant of human capital formation.

Question 12.
What are the two major sources of human capital in a country?
Answer:
The two major sources of human capital in a country are

• Education
• Health

Education and health are considered as important inputs for the development of a nation. A better educated person has greater skills and knowledge and therefore greater opportunity to work and earn higher income. Similarly, a healthy person is an asset for the nation as he is more productive than a sick person. Hence, expenditure on education and health are important sources of human capital formation.

Question 13.
Bring out the need for on-the-job training for a person, (NCERT)
Answer:
Firms provide on-the-job training to their workers to enhance their skills which helps in human capital formation. On-the-job training is an important factor of human capital formation as it results in enhanced labour productivity. On-the-job training allows trainees and employees to get acquainted with their co-workers.

Training allows the supervisors or managers to assess progress of a person over a short period of time enabling them to determine any flaws or problems and rectifying the problem on the spot. This leads to higher efficiency of not only the person under training but also the organisation as a whole.

Question 14.
Distinguish between physical capital and human capital.
Answer:
Differences between physical and human capital:

Basis	Physical Capital	Human Capital
Nature	it is tangible and can be easily sold in the market like any other commodity.	It is intangible; built in the body and mind of its owner. It is not sold in the market, only its services are sold.
Ownership	Its separable from its owner.	It is inseparable from its owner.
Mobility	It is completely mobile between countries except some artificial trade restrictions.	It is not perfectly mobile between countries as movement is restricted by nationality and culture.
Formation	It can be built even through imports.	It is to be done through conscious policy formulations.
Benefit	It creates only private benefit.	It creates private and social benefits.
Depreciation	It is subject to depreciation, which is unavoidable.	It is also subject to depreciation, but it could be avoided by expenditure on education and health.

Question 15.
Discuss the following as a source of human capital formation. (NCERT)
(i) Health infrastructure
(ii) Expenditure on migration
Answer:
(i) Health infrastructure It means investment in health facilities to build a physically as well as mentally strong human capital. It is essential for increasing productivity. Preventive medicine (vaccination), curative medicine (medical intervention during illness), social medicine (spread of health literacy) and provision of clean drinking water and good sanitation are the various forms of expenditures done on health infrastructure.

These expenditures are considered as important factors for human capital formation as they increase the supply of healthy labour force.
Therefore, health infrastructure is a source of human capital formation.

(ii) Expenditure on migration People migrate in search of jobs with higher salaries than what they may get in their native places. People from rural areas migrate to urban areas in search of employment. Technically qualified persons, like engineers and doctors, migrate to other countries because of higher earnings in such countries.

Migration in both these cases involves cost of transport, higher cost of living in the migrated places and psychological costs of adapting to a new socio-cultural setup. The increase in earnings in the new place outweighs these expenditures of migration. Hence, expenditure on migration is a source of human capital formation.

Question 16.
Human capital formation improves quality of life. How?
Answer:
Human capital formation helps an individual to earn more, thereby improving his quality of life.

Question 17.
State any one problem of human capital in India.
Answer:
High poverty levels

Question 18.
What is the meaning of ‘brain drain’?
Answer:
Brain drain is the large scale migration of a large group of individuals with technical skills or knowledge to a foreign country.

Question 19.
What is the meaning of economic growth?
Answer:
Economic growth means increase in the real national income of a country.

Question 20.
Why is it difficult to establish a cause and effect relationship between rate of growth in human capital formation and economic growth rate?
Answer:
Because of measurement problems it is difficult to establish cause and effect relationship between rate of growth in human capital formation and economic growth rate.

Question 21.
Discuss why human resource is considered to be the main economic factor.
Answer:
Of all the factors of production, viz. land, labour, capital and organisation; labour or human resource is the most important economic factor because it is the only factor which is active.

All the other factors are inactive. In the absence of human resource, production in an economy will come to a stand still. Therefore, it is correctly said that human resource is the main economic factor.

Question 22.
Do you think that ‘India is going to be a knowledge based economy in the near future’?
Answer:
India is soon emerging as a knowledge bank. The Indian software industry has been showing an impressive growth over the past decade. The use of e-mail, e-governance and development of information technology shows that India is slowly transforming itself into a knowledge based economy.

Question 23.
How is human development a broader term as compared to human capital? (NCERT)
Answer:
Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being because only when people have the ability to read and write and the ability to lead a long and healthy life, they will be able to make other choices they value.

In human capital view, any investment in education and health is unproductive, if it does not enhailce output of goods and services. In the human development perspective, human beings are ends in themselves. So, human capital is a part of human development.

Question 24.
Explain how investment in education stimulates economic growth. (NCERT)
Answer:
Investment in education stimulates economic growth in the following ways

• It helps to develop responsible citizens.
• It helps in the development of science and technology.
• It helps in the optimum utilisation of natural, physical and financial resources of a country.
• It expands the mental powers of an individual.
• It helps in economic development due to greater productivity and also helps to increase the standard of living.
• It helps in changing social perceptions.
• It also helps to control the birth rate.

Question 25.
What are the differences between human capital and human development?
Answers:
Difference between human capital and human development:

Basis	Human Capital	Human Development
Concept	It is a narrow concept.	It is a broader concept.
Means of productivity	It considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity.	It considers that education and health are integral to human well being because only when people have the ability to read and write and the ability to lead a long and healthy life, they will be able to make other choices they value.
Link	Human capital treats human beings as a means to an end, the end being the increase in productivity.	According to the concept of human development, human beings are an end in themselves.
Welfare	In human capital, investment in education and health is unproductive if it does not enhance output of goods and services.	In human development, human welfare should be increased through investments in education and health even if such investments do not result in higher labour productivity. Thus, every individual has a right to be healthy and literate.

Question 26.
How does investment in human capital contribute to growth? (NCERT)
Answer:
Investment in human capital is believed to be positively related to economic growth. The contribution of human capital formation to economic growth can be explained as follows

• Increase in labour productivity Investment in human capital through expenditure on education, health etc enhances the productivity of labour as they become physically fit and skilled in their jobs. It leads to efficient utilisation of the material inputs and capital. With increase in productivity, output increases at an increasing rate and hence economic growth accelerates.
• Innovations Human capital formation helps in preparing learned scientists and researchers in various subjects who bring out innovative products, technologies and processes and thus add to the economic growth.
• Capacity to adopt Advanced technology can be adopted only if the skills and knowledge required for using that technology are present in the country.

Investment in education and on-the-job training helps to create these skills and enhances the knowledge base and thus helps in absorption of new technologies which leads to higher production and thus economic growth. Thus, it is evident that human capital contributes to economic growth in various ways.

Question 27.
Trace the relationship between human capital and economic growth. (NCERT)
Answer:
Human capital is believed to be positively related to economic growth though, it is difficult to establish a relation of cause and effect from the growth of human capital to economic growth.

But we can see that human capital formation is related to economic growth in the following manner

• Higher productivity of physical capital Human capital increases productivity of physical capital as specialised and skilled workers can handle machines or techniques better than the unskilled workers. This increased productivity and production leads to economic growth.
• Innovatives skills Human capital facilitates innovation of new methods and techniques of production and this increases the rate of economic growth in the form of increase in GDP.
• Higher rate of participation and equality Human capital formation leads to a higher employment rate. With increase in employment, the productivity rises. Also, increase in employment opportunities increases the level of income and this helps in reducing inequalities of wealth.
• Brings positive outlook The process of human capital formation brings a positive outlook to the society which is different from orthodox and traditional ways of thinking, hence it increases the rate of participation in the workforce leading to an increase in the level of production and GDP.

Question 28.
What are the main problems of human capital formation in India? (NCERT)
Answer:
The main problems of human capital formation in India are as follows
(i) Rising population Rapidly rising population adversely affects the quality of human capital in under developed and developing countries like India.
It reduces per head availability of existing facilities like sanitation, employment, drainage, water system, housing, hospitals, education, food supply, nutrition, roads, electricity etc.

(ii) Brain drain Migration of highly skilled labour to foreign countries is termed as ‘brain drain’. This slows down the process of human capital formation in the domestic economy.

(iii) Inefficient of manpower planning There is inefficient manpower planning in less developed countries where no efforts have been made either to raise the standard of education at different stages or to maintain the demand and supply of technical labour force. It is a sad reflection on the wastage of human power and human skill.

(iv) Long-term process The process of human development is a long-term policy because skill formation takes time. The process which produces skilled manpower is thus, slow. This also lowers our competitiveness in the international market of human capital.

(v) High poverty levels A large proportion of the population lives below poverty line and do not have access to basic health and educational facilities. A large section of society cannot afford to get higher education or expensive medical treatment for major diseases.

Question 29.
How is literacy different from education?
Answer:
Education is a much wider concept than literacy. Literacy refers to the ability to read and write. Education includes three parameters, viz. primary education, secondary education and higher education.

Question 30.
Why has government imposed educational cess on all union taxes?
Answer:
The Government of India levied a 2% education cess on all union taxes so that the revenue generated by the government from this provision can be spent on financing elementary education.

Question 31.
India has not been able to achieve 100% literacy rates. Why?
Answer:
India has not been able to achieve 100% literacy because the government’s expenditure on education was inadequate.

Question 32.
What are the indicators of educational achievements in a country? (NCERT)
Answer:
The indicators of educational achievements in a country are

• Adult literacy level
• Primary education completion rate
• Youth literacy rate

Question 33.
The per capita education expenditure is only ₹ 3,600 in Bihar. What do you infer from this?
Answer:
Such a low per capita education expenditure conveys that the Bihar Government is not dedicated to the cause of education in their state. Due to this literacy levels are low in Bihar.

Question 34.
Give the full form of NSSO.
Answer:
National Sample Survey Organisation

Question 35.
Discuss the role of education in human capital formation.
Answer:
Education is very essential for human capital formation. It is the most effective way of enhancing and enlarging the productive workforce of the country. The benefits of education far exceed the cost of education and the difference between the two is the value of human capital formation.

Question 36.
How is the government expenditure on education expressed? According to you, which is a better measure?
Answer:
Government expenditure on education can be expressed in two ways

• Asa percentage of total government expenditure.
• As a percentage of Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

The measure as a percentage of GDP is a better measure since, it sets fixed targets rather than the variable government expenditure.

Question 37.
Explain the meaning of vocationalisation of education.
Answer:
To relate education with work, the government now lays stress to provide vocational education, at ‘plus 2’ level, specially to children in rural areas and to girl child. Practical knowledge of a specific work is given to children, so that they possess necessary skills needed and are able to find employment.

Question 38.
Write a brief note on National Literacy Mission.
Answer:
In 1988, National Literacy Mission (NLM) was initiated to promote adult education. A women education council was also established to promote women education in our country. The NLM has been recast as ‘Saakshar Bharat’ with a central focus on female education. The programme covers all citizens in the age group of 15 years and above.

Question 39.
Why do we observe regional differences in educational attainment in India? NCERT
Answer:
The per capita education expenditure differs considerably across states from as high ₹ 17,000 in Himachal Pradesh to as low as ₹ 3,600 in Bihar in 2011-12. This leads to regional differences in educational attainment. The states in which per capita education expenditure is more have high literacy rates as compared to those states with less per capita education expenditure.

Question 40.
Keeping in view the present scenario, what should be the objectives of education in India?
Answer:
In view of the present scenario, the following should be the objectives of education in India

• The first and foremost objective should be that of ensuring hundred per cent literacy in the country, as even after nearly 70 years of independence, around 26% of the population is illiterate.
• Vocationalisation of education should be encouraged.
• Higher education should be brought within the reach of all.
• Adult and female education should be encouraged.

Question 41.
Do you consider that Indian education system is faulty from the employment angle?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement. Indian education system is largely irrelevant to the needs of Indian economy. There is no linkage between education and employment opportunities.

After completing their school and college education, for a number of years, men and women remain unemployed because they do not have practical training and useful skills. Most of the students do not gain any occupational and vocational training. Hence, the Indian education system is considered faulty from the employment angle.

Question 42.
The current level of education expenditure is inadequate. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, the current level of education expenditure is inadequate. It is only 3.25% in comparision to the desired level of 6% of GDP. More than 50 years ago, the education commission has recommended that atldast 6% of GDP should be spent on education, so as to make a noticeable rate of growth in educational achievements.

However, the investment in education expenditure has not been uniform and is marked with regional and gender inequalities. India has also not been able to achieve the objective of providing free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.

Question 43.
Discuss the role of education in the economic development of a nation.
Answer:
Following points show that education plays a significant role in economic development

• Education increases the receptivity of people to modern and scientific ideas. Thus, education increases the efficiency of people.
• It results in greater awareness of available opportunities and mobility of labour.
• It imparts to people knowledge, skills and attitude which would enable them to contribute to the productive programmes.
• It produces skilled and trained personnel needed by the economy. Education prepares individuals as human resources.

Question 44.
The Education Commission in 1966, had recommended that atleast 6% of GDP should be spent on education in India. However, the government continues to spend 3-4% of GDP on education. How has this affected the education sector in India?
Answer:
Government’s unwillingness to spend 6% of GDP on education has affected this sector adversely, as is enumerated with the help of given statistics

• In India, about 30.3 crore people are still illiterate.
• The female literacy rate is 65.46%, which is quite low as compared to male literacy rate of 82.14 per cent.
• There is disparity in education levels of urban and rural areas.

Question 45.
How do government organisations facilitate the functioning of schools and hospitals in India? (NCERT)
Answer:
The following government organisations facilitate the functioning of schools and hospitals in India

• National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) This body is engaged in developing content and text books upto the level of senior secondary.
• University Grants Commission (UGC) It is the apex body for controlling the working of various universities in the country. It provides funding to the universities and formulates rules and regulations regarding higher education in the country.
• All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) This body formulates and enforces rules and regulations related to technical (engineering) education in India.
• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) This body formulates and enforces rules and regulations related to medical education in India. It also regulates the health sector.

Question 46.
Education is considered to be an important input for the development of a nation. How? (NCERT)
Answer:
Education is the process of teaching, training, learning, imparting knowledge and developing skills. Because of education the citizens become responsible. It facilitates the use of natural and human resources.

Following points are describing why education is an important input for the development of a nation

• Knowledge and skills A better educated person has greater skills and knowledge which enhances productivity and therefore provides a greater opportunity to work and earn higher income.
• Rationality Education develops thinking process in people and helps them in making rational choices which lead to efficient utilisation of resources resulting in higher productivity.
• Values and ethics Education inculcates moral values and professional ethics in people, making them law abiding citizens, who contribute towards the well being of the nation.
• Adoption of modem technology Education develops the skills required for understanding and adopting modern technology. This helps in increasing output and growth of the nation.
• Reduction in income inequality Education enhances the income earning capacity of people from economically backward sections of the country and thus reduces the inequalities in the distribution of income.
• Standard of living Education raises the living standard of people by enhancing their earning capacity.
• Participation rate Education makes a greater proportion of population capable of participating in the economic, social and political activities of a nation thus raising the participation of people in the development process.

Question 47.
Discuss the need for promoting women’s education in India. (NCERT)
Answer:
Women have always been neglected when it comes to education in India. The access to education has always been biased towards male population due to our social system which is patriarchal. The lack of education has caused exploitation of women and has resulted in a lower social status of women in India.
There is an imminent need or promoting female education in India, because of the following reasons

• Women education is essential for providing them economic independence and empowering them to save them from exploitation and domestic violence.
• Women education is essential in order to raise the social status of women, so that the quality of life of women can be improved.
• Educating woman helps in promoting family welfare programmes and thus, in population control.
• Educated woman are aware of the importance of healthcare and thus, take proper care of their family members contributing in human capital formation.
• Educating a woman means educating a family. An educated woman can inculcate moral values in her children and can facilitate their education.

Question 48.
Argue in favour of the need for different forms of government intervention in education and health sectors. (NCERT)
Answer:
There is a need for different forms of government intervention in education and health sectors due to the following reasons

• Private sector is governed by profit motive and hence does not provide education and health facilities at a reasonable cost which may be affordable to all.
• Standard of education and health needs to be maintained in order to develop human resources effectively and government intervention is needed for this.
• Education and health is essential for social upliftment of backward and weaker sections of the society and government intervention in terms of policy and provision of infrastructure is required in education as well as health sector.
• Regional disparities are prevalent in education and health in India which can be corrected only through government intervention at all levels as private sector would not be forthcoming for establishing schools or hospitals in remote or backward areas.

Question 49.
Why does a skilled worker like a software professional generates more income than an unskilled worker?
Answer:
A skilled worker generates more income than an unskilled worker mainly because the productivity of an educated and skilled person is higher than an unskilled one. A skilled worker also commands higher earnings and gainful employment. This is because they cannot be substituted easily because, it takes years to generate a manpower which is skilled in a particular field. On the other hand, an unskilled worker like a rickshaw puller can be easily substituted and such workers easily compromise on lesser earnings.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which one is not the part of hitman capital?
(a) Doctors
(b) Engineers
(c) Unskilled labour
(d) Chartered Accountants
Answer:
(c) Unskilled labour

Hint:
Human capital includes the people who have the skills, education, expertise and experience, e.g. Doctors, lawyers, engineers, chartered accountants, skilled labour etc.

Question 2.
…………… is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well being.
(a) Capital development
(b) Physical education
(c) Human development
(d) Economic development
Answer:
(c) Human development

Hint:
Expenditure on education and health are important sources of human capital formation. An educated person has greater skills and knowledge and a healthy person is more productive.

Question 3.
Main problems of human capital formation include(s)
(a) rising population
(b) high poverty
(c) brgin drain
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Government’s initiatives to improve education in India include
(a) Provision of cess
(b) Right to Education
(c) Promoting education
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
The Government of India has taken many initiatives to improve level of education include, education cess on all union taxes, free education for children, promotion of primary, secondary and higher secondary levels of education.

Question 5.
Which of the following is/are the true statement(s)?
(a) Elementary education takes a major share of total education expenditure
(b) Expenditure per student is higher or tertiary education as compared to elementary education
(c) The share of higher education like colleges, polytechnics etc is the least
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Hint:
In India, government is spending more on elementary education but the share of expenditure is least on colleges and polytechnics etc. Per student expenditure is higher for higher education.

Question 6.
Under human capital formation, expenditure on health includes expenditure for
(a) preventive medicine
(b) curative medicine
(c) social medicine
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 7.
Under human capital formation, on-the-job training includes
(a) training within the office campus
(b) off-the-job training
(c) training outside the office campus
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 8.
Which five year plan recognised the importance of human capital in India?
(a) Tenth
(b) Seventh
(c) Sixth
(d) Ninth
Answer:
(b) Seventh

Hint:
Human capital/resource development was one of the objective of seventh five year plan, government was spent money on education, healthcare, sanitation and drinking water.

Question 9.
Under human capital formation, people migrate
(a) from rural area to urban area
(b) From urban area to rural area
(c) from foreign country to home country
(d) Ml of the above
Answer:
(a) from rural area to urban area

Hint:
People migrate from rural area to urban area or from home country to foreign country in search of better jobs and high salaries.

Question 10.
How human capital formation contributes towards economic growth?
(a) By stimulating innovation and inventions
(b) By enabling human resources to understand changes in scientific advancement
(c) Human capital formation is inversely related with economic growth
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
Which body formulates and enforce rules and regulations related to technical and professional education in India?
(a) AICTE
(b) UGC
(c) NCERT
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) AICTE

Hint:
All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) was set-up in 1945 as a national body to promote and regulate technical and professional education system.

Question 12.
As per education data, which of the following state has the highest literacy rate in India?
(a) Delhi
(b) Kerala
(c) Mizoram
(d) Goa
Answer:
(b) Kerala

Hint:
In 2017, the most literate state is the Kerala with 93.91%. Literacy rate is one of the keys to measure socio-economic progress.