Sastry CBSE

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 Important Questions Social Science History Chapter 6

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was Captain Swing ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
It was a mythic name used by the poor labourers to threaten the rich landlords who were replacing workers for machines.

Question 2.
What was common land ?
Answer:
It was the land to which all villagers had an access.

Question 3.
“For the poor, the common land was essential for survival.” Justify.
Answer:
It supplemented their meagre income, sustained their cattle, and helped them tide over bad times when crops failed.

Question 4.
“ In some parts of England, the economy of open field and common lands had started changing from about 16th century. Mention any two factors responsible for this change.
Answer:

• Increase in the price of wool.
• Increase in population.

Question 5.
What was enclosure system ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Under the enclosure system, the common land which was the property of the whole village was being enclosed by rich landlords. The common land was enclosed by building hedges around the land to separate it from that of others.

Question 6.
How did the industrialisation encourage the enclosure system in England? Give two points.
Answer:

• Industries needed more raw materials and were paying high price to the farmers for their produce. This encouraged the farmers to grow more, and to increase enclosures.
• Men from rural areas migrated to towns in search of jobs. To survive, they had to buy food grains from the market. As the urban population grew, the market for the foodgrains expanded. This also encouraged the farmers for enclosures.

Question 7.
How was American landscape of 18th century different from that of 20th century ?
Answer:
Most of the landscape was under the control of locals whereas in the 20th century the landscape was under the White Americans.

Question 8.
What was the impact of White settler movement towards the west on the American Indians ?
Answer:

• They were driven away from their land.
• They were massacred and many of their villages burnt.

Question 9.
Name any two machines which were responsible for the dramatic wheat production in USA.
Answer:
Reaper and walking plough.

Question 10.
What was the importance of new machines for the big farmers ?
Answer:

• The new machines allowed these big farmers to rapidly clear large tracts, break up the soil, remove the grass and prepare the ground for cultivation.
• The work could be done quickly and with a minimal number of hands.

Question 11.
How was the introduction of machines responsible for the Great Depression of 1930’s ?
Answer:
Production had expanded so rapidly during the First World War and post¬war years that that there was a large surplus. Unsold stocks piled up, storehouses overflowed with grain, and vast amounts of corn and wheat were turned into animal feed. Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed. This created the grounds for the Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930s that ruined wheat farmers everywhere.

Question 12.
What was the Dust Bowl tragedy? [CBSE2015]
Answer:
It was a tragedy which occurred in the 1930s in USA. Due to overutilisation of the Prairies black blizzards became a common phenomena.

Question 13.
Name any two commercial crops which were grown by the Indian farmers in the early 19th century.
Answer:
Indigo and opium.

Question 14.
Name any two commercial crops which the English East Company was buying from China for sale in England.[CBSE2015]
Answer:
Tea and silk.

Question 15.
The Confucian rulers of China were not willing to allow the entry of foreign goods in China.’ Give reasons.
Answer:

• The Confucian rulers of China were suspicious of all foreign merchants.
• They feared that the merchants would meddle in the local politics, and disrupt their authority.

Question 16.
What was the impact of opium trade on China ?
Answer:

• The traders started meddling in local politics.
• The Chinese became an addict to opium. People of all classes started liking drugs.

Question 17.
Which European country introduced opium into China? When was it introduced ?
Answer:
The Portuguese had introduced opium into China. It was introduced in the early 16th century.

Question 18.
Why did the East India Company persuade the Indian farmers to grow opium ?
Answer:
So that the Company can export the opium to China.

Question 19.
How were the unwilling cultivators’ made to produce opium ?
Answer:
The unwilling cultivators were made to produce opium through a system of advances.

Question 20.
Name any two Indian states which were producing opium for the East India Company.
Answer:
Bengal and Bihar produced opium for the East India Company.

Question 21.
Mention the factors responsible for the Dust Bowl tragedy.
Answer:

• Less rain than normal.
• Over ploughing of the Prairies.

Question 22.
Mention any two methods used by the Britishers to increase the land revenue.
Answer:

•  A regular system of land revenue was established.
• Revenue rates were increased.

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the major features of the ‘Open Field’ system which was prevailing in England in the eighteenth, and the early nineteenth century. [CBSE March 2012]
Answer:

• Before the 18th century in large parts of England, the countryside was open. Peasants cultivated on strips of land around the village they lived in.
• At the beginning of each year, strips of varying quality were allocated to each villager.
• Beyond these strips of cultivation, lay the common land. All villagers had an access to the commons.
• For the poor, the common land was essential for survival. It supplemented meagre income, sustained their cattle, and helped them tide over bad times, when crops failed.

Question 2.
‘Between 1750 and 1900 England’s population multiplied four times.’ Explain its impact on the enclosures.
Answer:

• More population means more demand for foodgrains. So this encouraged the landlords to enclose more land.
• Due to increase in population, the market for foodgrains expanded, and when demand increased rapidly, food grain prices rose. This increased the profit margin which encouraged the landlords to enclose more open fields.
• Due to increase in the demand for foodgrains, rich farmers started using machinery. This also encouraged enclosures.
• As the urban population was dependent on the rural population for foodgrains, so there was expansion of foodgrain market in the urban areas also.

Question 3.
How was the Enclosure movement of the 16th century different from that of 18th century? [CBSE 2013]
Answer:

Question 4.
Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium ? Explain. [CBSE 2013 March,2015]
Answer:

• The crop had to be grown on the best land on fields that lay near villages, and were well manured. On this land, peasants usually produced pulses. If they planted opium on this land then pulses could not be grown there or they would have to be grown on inferior land where harvests were poorer and uncertain. and were well manured. On this land, peasants usually produced pulses. If they planted opium on this land then pulses could not be grown there or they would have to be grown on inferior land where harvests were poorer and uncertain.
• Many cultivators owned no land. To cultivate, they had to pay rent and lease land from landlords. And the rent charged on good lands near villages was very high.
• The cultivation of opium was a difficult process. The plant was delicate and cultivators had to spend
  long hours nurturing it. This meant that they did not have enough time to care for other crops.
• The price the government paid to the cultivators for the opium they . produced was very low. It was unprofitable for cultivators to grow opium at that price.

Question 5.
Why did the demand of food- grains increased in England from the mid-eighteenth century?
Answer:

• Increase in population: From the mid-eighteenth century, the English population expanded rapidly. Between 1750 and 1900, it multiplied over four times, mounting from 7 million in 1750 to 21 million
  in 1850 and 30 million in 1900.
• Impact of industrialisation : Moreover, Britain at this time was industrialising. More and more people began to live and work in urban areas. Men from rural areas migrated to towns in search of jobs. To survive they had to buy foodgrains in the market. As the urban population grew, the market for foodgrains expanded, and when demand increased rapidly, foodgrain prices rose.
• Wars : By the end of the eighteenth century, France was at war with England. This disrupted trade and the import of foodgrains from Europe. So this created a imbalance between demand and supply.

Question 6.
“The coming of modern agriculture in England thus meant many different changes.” Explain.
Answer:

• The open fields disappeared, and the customary rights of peasants were undermined.
• The richer farmers expanded grain production, sold this grain in the world market, made profits, and became powerful.
• The poor left their villages in large numbers. Some went from the Midlands to the Southern counties where jobs were available, others to the cities.
• The income of labourers became unstable, their jobs insecure, their livelihood precarious.

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the impact of enclosures on the poor farmers ? [CBSE March 2012]
Or
How were the poor affected by the enclosure movement ? [CBSE March 2011,2012] Or
Mention any four features of enclosure system prevailing in England.
Answer:

• Before the enclosures: Before the late 18th century the countryside in Britain was open. i.e. it was not partitioned into enclosed lands privately owned by landlords.
• New fences: When fences came up, the enclosed land became the exclusive property of landowners. The poor could no longer collect their firewood from the forests, or graze their cattle on the commons.
• Restrictions: The new enclosed system put up various restrictions on the poor. They could no longer collect apples and berries, or hunt small animals for meat. Nor could they gather the stalks that lay on the fields after the crops were harvested.
• Displacement of poor: In places, where enclosures happened on an extensive scale, particularly the Midlands and the countries around- the poor were displaced from the land. They found their customary rights gradually disappearing.
•  Migration: Deprived of their rights, and driven off the land, they tramped in search of work. From the Midlands, they moved to the southern countries of England. This was a region that was most intensively cultivated, and there was a great demand for agricultural labourers. But nowhere could the poor find secure jobs.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:

• Rising Demand for Wool: In the 16th century, the demand for wool went up in the world market. This had a direct impact on the price of wool and profits. Rich farmers wanted to expand wool production to earn more profits. For this, they were eager to improve their sheep breeds. They started enclosing open fields to provide proper pastures to the sheep.
• Various Acts: The early enclosures were usually created by individual landlords. They were not supported by the state or the church. But after 1850, many Acts were passed to legalise the enclosures.
• Rapid Rise in Population: There was a rapid growth of population of England between the 18th and the 19th centuries. Between 1750 and 1900, it multiplied over four times. The increased population means more demand for foodgrains and other Products. Due to increase in population the pressure on land also increased and the people had no other option except to enclose open fields.
• Increase in Demand for Foodgrains: There was shortage of foodgrains in England due to increase in population and war with France. Price of foodgrains in England sky. Rocketed, encouraging landowners to enclose lands and enlarge the area under grain cultivation.
• Use of Machinery: As the demand for foodgrains was increasing at a very fast rate, the rich people started using machines. These machines needed large farms. So the rich landlords started enclosing more and open fields.
• Long-term Investments: Enclosures were also seen as to make long-term investments on land, and plan crop rotations to improve the soil.

Question 3.
‘From the late 19th century, there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the USA.’ Give four reasons for this expansion. [CBSE March 2012]
(or)
Which country was known as the bread basket of the world during nineteenth century ? Describe the factors responsible for the expansion of agriculture in the country. [CBSE March 2012]
Answer:
USA was known as the bread basket of the world during the 19th century.

(i) The White settlers: A large number of White settlers moved towards west of America in the late 19th century,
They slashed and burnt forests, pulled out the stumps, cleared the land for cultivation, and built log cabins in the forest clearings. Then they cleared larger areas, and erected fences around , the fields. They ploughed the land and sowed com and wheat.

(ii) The new technology: The dramatic expansion of agriculture was made possible by new technology. Stekm tractors, harvesters, reapers played very important role. To break the sod and turn the soil over, a variety of new ploughs were devised locally. In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper which could cut in one day as much as five men could cut with cradles and 16 men with sickles. By the early twentieth century, most farmers were using combined harvesters to cut grain. With one of these machines, 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks. tractors, harvesters, reapers played very important role. To break the sod and turn the soil over, a variety of new ploughs were devised locally. In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper which could cut in one day as much as five men could cut with cradles and 16 men with sickles. By the early twentieth century, most farmers were using combined harvesters to cut grain. With one of these machines, 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks.

(iii) High demand: From the late nineteenth century, there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the USA. The urban population in the USA was growing and the export market was becoming ever bigger. As the demand increased, wheat prices rose, encouraging farmers to produce wheat.

(iv) Spread of Railway : The spread of railway to the countryside helped in linking the local market with the international market as it made it easy to transport the grain from the wheat growing regions to the eastern coast for export.

(v) The First World War and soaring demand: By the early twentieth century the demand became even higher, and during the First World War the world market boomed. Russian supplies of wheat were cut off and the USA had to feed Europe. US President Wilson called upon farmers to respond to the need of the time. ‘Plant more wheat will win the war he said.

Question 4.
Explain the Dust Bowl tragedy. What moral lesson we should learn – from the tragedy.
Answer:

• The expansion of wheat agriculture and overgrazing of the Prairies were responsible for the Dust Bowl tragedy.
• In 1930s, terrifying dust storms began to blow over the southern plains.
• These dust storms had a great impact on the economic and social life of the people.
• The black blizzards were responsible for natural disaster in which people were blinded, cattle were suffocated to death, and machinery was damaged beyond repair.
• It was a natural as well as man-made disaster because farmers themselves were responsible for the tragedy.
• The farmers had recklessly uprooted all vegetation, and tractors had turned the soil over, berating the sod into dust.
  Moral Lesson: We should respect ecological conditions of each region and should avoid overutilisation of natural resources.

Question 5.
Why the British insisted on growing opium in India? [CBSE 2015]
Or
What’ problems were caused by East India company’s dependence on tea trade? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:

• In the late 18th century, the English East India Company was buying tea and silk from China for sale in England.
• As tea was gaining popularity in England, its demand rose from 15 million pounds to 30 million pounds.
• England at that time produced nothing that could be easily sold in China.
• This means an outflow of treasure from England to China.
• Merchants wanted to balance their trade. ‘
• So they searched for a commodity they could sell in China.
• Opium was such a commodity which had a demand in China, as it was used in medicines.
• So to balance their trade and to earn huge profits, they persuaded Indian farmers to grow opium so that the British traders could sell it in China.

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions

Question 1.
Explain the circumstances that lead to the Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930’s.
Answer:

•  The high demand for wheat encouraged the farmers to adopt new technology and new machines.
• The new machines allowed the big farmers to increase the production at a very fast rate.
• After that, most farmers faced trouble. Production had expanded so rapidly during the war and post-war years that there was a large surplus.
• Unsold stocks piled up, storehouses overflowed with grain, and vast amounts of corn and wheat were turned into animal feed. Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed.

Question 2.
‘The new technology introduced in agriculture in the 19th century created the grounds for the Great Agrarian Depression of 1930s.’ Justify by giving examples.
Answer:
Mechanization had reduced the need for labour. And the boom of the late nineteenth and the early twentieth centuries seemed to have come to an end by the mid 1920s. After that, most farmers faced trouble. Production had expanded so rapidly during the war and post-war years, that there was a large surplus. Unsold stocks piled up, storehouses overflowed with grain, and vast amounts of com and wheat were turned into animal feed. Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed. This created the grounds for the Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930s that ruined wheat farmers everywhere.

Question 3.
“There is one dramatic fact that makes the period after the 1780s different from any earlier period in English history. In earlier times, rapid population growth was most often followed by a period of food shortages. But this did not happen in the 19th century.” Mention any four factors responsible for this.
Answer:

•  By bringing new lands under cultivation.
•  By carving open fields.
•  By cutting forests to use the land for cultivation.
•  By turning marshes into agricultural fields.

Question 4.
How is the story of modernisation of agriculture in England different from? America? Mention three points of each.
Answer:

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Suppose you are England farmer of the 17th century. Which method you have used to increase agricultural production? How is it different from the modern method?
Answer:
By growing turnip and clover .These days farmers use fertilisers to increase agricultural production.

Question 2.
Suppose you are Chinese Emperor of the 19*“century. Why would you not allow the illegal opium trade into your country?
Answer:
Because there is danger that people may become addict.

Question 3.
Why Were threshing machines opposed by the poor in England? Give two reasons.
Answer:

• Because due to machines rich farmers were enclosing more and more open fields.
• Due to machines the poor were losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Do you think introduction of machines should be always opposed. Give reason.
Answer:
No, because machines increase the production and save time.

Question 5.
Explain the social and economic impacts of enclosure system.
Answer:

• The system of enclosures increased the wedge between the rich and the poor.
• All the villagers had access to the commons. Here they pastured their cows and grazed their sheep.
• For the poor, the common land was essential for survival. It supplemented their meagre income, sustained their cattle and helped them tide over bad times when crops failed.

Question 6.
Do you think human beings need to respect the ecological conditions of each region? Explain with the help of Dust Bowl Tragedy.
Answer:
There is no doubt that human needs to respect the ecological conditions of each region because if environment is not taken care of, it can lead to a disaster.

• Before the arrival of white settlers most of the landscape of America was under forest cover or Prairies.
• The new arrivals i.e. white settlers started converting these Prairies or forest into cultivable fields.
• When wheat cultivation had expanded dramatically in the early twentieth century, zealous farmers had recklessly uprooted all vegetation, and tractors had turned the soil over, and broken the sod into dust. When the wind blew with ferocious speed the whole region became a dust bowl. The American dream of a land of plenty had turned into a nightmare.
• The settlers had thought that they could conquer the entire landscape, turn all land over to growing crops that could yield profits. After the 1930s, they realized that they had to respect the ecological conditions of each region.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 Sports and Nutrition is part of Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 Sports and Nutrition.

Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 Sports and Nutrition

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
What is balanced diet? (Delhi 2014 7)
OR
What do you mean by balanced diet?
Answer:
A diet that contains sufficient amount of proteins, fats, carbohydrates, minerals, salts, vitamins and water is called balanced diet. A balanced diet is that which contains the proper amount of each nutrient required by our body.

Question 2.
What do you mean by food and nutrition?
Answer:
Food is a mixture of various substances which are essential for life, whereas nutrition is a dynamic process in which the body is made healthy by the consumption of food.

Question 3.
What are carbohydrates?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Sources Fruits, milk, vegetables, pulses, bajra, rice, cakes etc.
Function The main function of carbohydrates is to provide energy for the body, brain and nervous system.

Question 4.
Why does the weightlifters’ diet includes lots of protein? (CBSE Model Question Paper 2015)
Answer:
The diet includes a lot of protein because proteins contain amino acids. This is used in building muscles and increase strength which are necessary for weightlifting.

Question 5.
What are fats? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Fats are the energy boosters which provide us with twice as much energy as carbohydrates. We can store extra fat in our body to be used later.

Question 6.
What are micronutrients? (All India; Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Micro nutrients are little Wonders of Nature that control growth and development, cell formation, disease resistance and repair processes of our body.

Question 7.
What are vitamins? (All India 2014)
Answer:
Vitamins are compounds of carbon vvhich are essential for the normal growth and working of the body. They are required in very small quantities. The important vitamins are A, C, D, E, K and 6-complex (B, B2, B3, B5, B6, and B12).

Question 8.
Enlist two sources of calcium and iron separately. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Calcium—milk, cheese Iron—meat; eggs.

Question 9.
What do you mean by components of diet?
Answer:
Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals and water are called components of diet. These components are composed of various elements such as carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and other macro and microelements like calcium; iron, zinc etc.

Question 10.
Enlist two non-nutritive components of diet. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Non-nutritive components of diet are

• Colour compounds
• Flavour compounds

Question 11.
Define food supplements.
Answer:
Food supplements which are also known as a dietary supplement, are providing vitamins, minerals, herbs, amino acids, enzymes and other beneficial, substances in the form of capsules,- soft gels, cops and tablets.

Question 12.
What is the disadvantage of food supplements?
Answer:
Food supplements can interact with medications which can cause unwanted side effects and decrease the efficacy of the medicine.

Question 13.
Critically explain the use of dietary supplements in heavy dose for longer duration. Justify your answer with two suitable examples. All indin 2015
Answer:
Dietary supplements if taken in heavy doses can be toxic and cause serious side effects.
For example

1. Heavy dose of vitamin A can cause liver damage, blurred vision, headache, bone pain and nausea.
2. Heavy dose of iron can cause digestive problems.

Question 14.
Explain the importance of fluid intake during competition.
Answer:
Fluid intake is very essential during competition as it helps to keep the body hydrated. The fluid intake requirement depends upon the duration of the events, as explained below

• or events lasting for less than one hour, it is recommended that competitors consume 180-240 ml of water every 10-15 minutes to prevent dehydration.
• For events lasting for more than one hour, it is recommended that competitors consume 150-300 ml of carbohydrate/electrolyte beverage every 15-20 minutes during exercise.

3 Marks Questions

Question 15.
What are fats? Write a detailed note on its types. Also mention its importance in the proper functioning of the body. CBSE 2012
Answer:
Fats contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. These are the most concentrated source of energy in food.
Sources of Fats Animal products like meat, poultry and dairy products like milk, cream, cheese, butter and ice-cream, peanuts, olive oil etc. Types Fats can be classified according to their structures.

Different types of fats have different characteristics and these react in different ways inside the body. There are three different groups of fats in the diet which are saturated, poly-unsaturated and mono-unsaturated fats. The intake of saturated fats increases the chances of heart diseases due to the increase of cholesterol in the blood.

Importance

• Fats keep us warm and give protection to organiser:
• Fats also help in production of hormones.
• Fatty acids provide the raw materials which help in control of blood pressure, blood clotting and other body functions.
• Fats help in transportation of fat soluble vitamins like A, D, E and K.
• Fats maintain skin and hair.

Question 16.
Discuss the functions and sources of fats.
Answer:
Fats are an essential ingredient of food. Fat is also a compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
Functions of Fats

• They provide heat and energy to the body.
• They also help in regulation of body temperature.
• They are considered better than carbohydrates as sources of energy.
• Fats keep us warm and give protection to organiser:

Sources of Fats

• Animal Sources We get various products from animals such as ghee, butter, curd, fish oil, milk, meat and eggs.
• Vegetable Sources We also get fats from various vegetables such as dry fruits, coconut, soybean, foodgrains, mustard oil and cotton seeds.

Question 17.
What are vitamins? Name the types of vitamins.
OR
Vitamins are very essential for working of the body and are divided into two groups. Explain about them. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Vitamins are compounds of carbon. These protect us from various diseases and are essential for general growth and development of our body.
Types of Vitamins There are various vitamins such as A, C, D, E, K and B-complex (Bj, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 and B12) There are two groups of vitamins.
Fat Soluble Vitamins Fat-soluble vitamins are those vitamins which are soluble in fat. These vitamins are A, D, E and K which are given below

• Vitamin A is essential for normal growth, proper functioning of nervous system and digestive system.
• Vitamin D is essential for healthy bones and teeth.
• Vitamin E increases fertility and ensures proper functioning of the glands.
• Vitamin K helps in clotting of blood.

Water Soluble Vitamins These vitamins are soluble in water. These contain the elements of nitrogen and sulphur.
These vitamins are B complex and C which are given below

• Vitamin B complex consists of various groups of vitamins namely B,, B2, B3, B6, and B12.
• They are necessary for proper growth and functioning.of various organs of the body.
• Vitamin C is essential for maintenance of ligaments, tissues, tendons and strong blood vessels.

Question 18.
Briefly explain the functions and resources of fat soluble vitamins. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The vitamins that are soluble in fats are called fat soluble vitamins. They are vitamin A, D, E and K
Functions

1. Vitamin A This is essential for normal growth of the bpdy. Deficiency of vitamin A leads to night blindness and also affects the kidneys, nervous system and digestive system. Sources are milk, curd, ghee, egg yolk, fish, tomato, papaya,’ green vegetables, orange, spinach, carrot and pumpkin.
2. Vitamin D This is essential for the formation of healthy teeth and bones. The presence of this vitamin in the body enables it to absorb calcium and phosphorus. Its deficiency causes rickets, softness of bones, teeth diseases. Sources are egg yolk, fish, sunlight, vegetables, cod liver oil, milk, cream, butter.
3. Vitamin E This is. essential.in increasing the fertility among men and women as well as proper functioning of adrenal and sex glands. Its deficiency causes weakness in muscles and heart. Sources are green vegetables, sprouts, coconut oil, dry and fresh fruits, milk, meat, butter, maize.
4. Vitamin K This is helpful in the clotting of blood. Its deficiency causes anaemia and blood do not clot easily. Sources are cauliflower, spinach, cabbage, tomato, potato, wheat, egg and meat.

Question 19.
Mention the uses of any two minerals in our diet.
Answer:

1. Iodine Iodine is essential for proper thyroid function. Its deficiency causes goitre and sources are seafood and salt.
2. Calcium Calcium is helpful in the formation of teeth and bones. It helps in clotting of blood. Its deficiency causes rickets and asthma. Milk, cheese, oranges and green vegetables have a rich amount of calcium.

Question 20.
Write briefly about protein as an essential component of diet.flll India; (Delhi 2016)
OR
What are proteins? Discuss.
Answer:
Proteins are the basic structure of all living cells. These are complex organic compounds. Protein is a chain of amino acids that contain carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen.
There are two types of proteins

• Vegetable proteins
• Animal proteins

Sources All meat and other animal products are sources of proteins. The best sources are eggs, milk, meat, poultry, milk products, beans etc.

Question 21.
What is balanced diet? Elaborate the important nutrients/elements of balanced diet.
Answer:
Balanced Diet A balanced diet is that which ’ contains the proper amounts of each nutrient.
A balanced diet consists of all essential food constituents i.e. protein, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals in correct proportion. Elements

• Carbohydrates These are our main sources of energy.
• Proteins These provide essential growth as ‘ well as repairing muscles and other body tissues.
• Fats These are the sources of energy.
• Vitamins These play an important role in many chemical processes in the body.
• Minerals These are essential for proper – growth and functioning of our body.
• Water It is essential for normal body functions. It serves as a vehicle for carrying other nutrients.

Question 22.
In sports such as boxing and wrestling, the players tend to loose weight sharply. Explain the pitfalls of dieting.
Answer:
Pitfalls of dieting are

1. Eating too Little In dieting people take just 1500-1800 calories per day. But this is not sufficient to meet the daily requirements. This may result in massive weight loss and other related health problems.
2. More Drinking than Eating In order to reduce calorie consumption, more drinks are taken like sweetened juices, sodas, tea and coffee with sugar. These increase the weight.
3. Skipping Meals Not taking breakfast, lunch, dinner or proper meals reduces the metabolic rate. Then the body starts conserving energy, the next time it gets food. This also results in more intake of calories in next meal.
4. Intake of Labelled Foods By taking foods that are labelled as ‘low fat’, Tow sugar’, Tow calories’ may not produce proper results. For example, drinking more tea with sugarfree results in more intake of tea and hence greater calorie consumption.
5. Not Performing Exercises No exercises reduce the level of metabolism drastically and there is no burning of calories. In that case dieting will not be effective.

Question 23.
What is the major goal of a pre-competition meal? When should it be taken and why?
Answer:
The major goal of a pre-competition meal is to maximise carbohydrate stores in the muscles and liver and to top up blood glucose stores. This meal should preferably be taken about 3-4 hours prior to the start of the competition. If taken later than this, it results in performing with a full stomach, which causes nausea-the body’s attempt to cease exercise so that it can redirect blood flow back to the stomach. An exception is of consuming carbohydrate immediately prior to the start of a game in the form of a sports drink 5 or 10 minutes before competition.

Question 24.
What are the Nutritive and Non-nutritive components of diet? Explain. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Food components whether they are nutritive (providing calories) or non-nutritive (not providing calories) are needed to a multiple of food and beverages. They not only provide a sweet flavour to foods, they are also used to preserve foods (in jams or jellies), provide body bulk and texture (in ice-cream and baked goods), enhance other flavours (like salty) and aid in fermentation (in breads and pickles).

The nutritive components of diet are proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals. Non-nutritive components do not contribute to the energy, calories or nutrition of the body. Some non-nutritive components are essential for the body while others harm the body. Colour compounds, flavour compounds, food additives, plant compound, water, roughage or fibre are some non-nutritive components of diet.

5 Marks Questions

Question 25.
Explain any five essential elements of diet. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
There are many nutrients in the food. These are known as elements.
Essential elements of our diet are
1. Carbohydrates These are the compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Sources Fruits, milk, vegetables, pulses, bajra, rice, cakes etc.
Functions The main function of carbohydrates is to provide energy to the body, brain and nervous system.

2. Proteins Proteins are a chain of amino acids that contain carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen.
Sources Eggs, milk, meat, beans, animal products etc.
Functions Proteins are the main components of muscles, organs and glands. The cells of muscles and ligaments are maintained with protein and proteins are used for the growth and development of children.

3. Fats Fats contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
Sources Animal products, milk, cream, cheese, butter, olive oil etc.
Functions of Fats are a source of energy. They are important for the proper functioning of the body. Fatty acids provide the raw materials which help in control of blood pressure.

4. Vitamins Vitamins are compounds of carbon. The important vitamins are A, C, D, E, K and B- complex (B, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, Bg and B12).
Sources Milk, butter, eggs, green vegetables, exposure to sunlight, oil, nuts, seeds, fish, amla etc.
Functions Vitamins play an important role in many chemical processes in the body. Vitamins are essential for metabolism of fat and carbohydrate and are needed for healthy skin. They are helpful in RBC production.
carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals.

5. Minerals Minerals are iron, calcium, phosphorus, sodium, iodine, copper, chloride etc.
Sources Eggs, milk, meat, green vegetables, pulses, fish, salts, tea and coffee etc. . Functions Minerals are essential for proper growth of the body. Calcium is needed for strong teeth and bones. It is also essential for proper thyroid function.

6. Water Water is an important element of balanced diet.
Source Nature.
Functions Water helps in the digestive system. It regulates body temperature and carries nutrients to cells.

Question 26.
‘Vitamins are essential for our metabolic process. What happens if we devoid our diet of vitamins? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Vitamins are required by the body for proper growth and development. The following may happen if we will avoid vitamins in our diet

• In the absence of vitamin A, there may be night-blindness.
• Deficiency of vitamin B causes Beri-Beri disease.
• Deficiency of vitamin C causes Scurvy.
• Deficiency of vitamin E causes weakness in heart and muscles.
• Deficiency of vitamin K causes anaemia.
• In addition, deficiency of vitamins in the body affects the working of the organs, nervous system and digestive system adversely.
• Their presence is necessary for maintaining healthy teeth and bones as well as overall health.

Question 27.
Diet for a sportsperson is important. What should be the aims of preparing diet for sportsperson? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
For a sportsperson, taking proper diet is very essential. The aims of preparing diet for a sportsperson are as follows

• For maintaining healthy body weight.
• For providing energy needed to perform various activities of the body.
• For the proper growth of the body.
• For replacing worn out tissues.
• For providing chemicals that help to control the body functions.
• For protecting the body against diseases.
• For providing the body with adequate energy required during practice sessions as well as during, competitions.
• For providing easy recovery of cells and tissues after a competition is over.

Question 28.
What is the role of various elements of diet on performance of ah athlete? (All India 2014)
Answer:
For a sportsperson athlete, it is essential to take a balanced diet as lot of physical activity and endurance is needed in sports.
The quality of sports diet depends on the correct proportion of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, minerals, salts etc, which constitute the main nutrients of diet.
Functions of different elements of diet are

• Carbohydrates are helpful in increasing endurance.
• Protein is necessary for the growth and development of various tissues of the body.
• A minimum amount of fat is desirable for a long distance runner, high jumper or gymnast.
• Diet prevents, various diseases, maintains healthy weight.
• Vitamins are essential for good performance and overall development of the body.
• Water is essential as it helps in releaving the body of waste materials and transportation of nutrients to cells. ,

Value-Based Question

Question 29.
What are the effects of good nutrition on an individual?
Answer:
Effects of good nutrition on an individual are

1. Prevent Disease It includes prevention from cancer, tissues disease, parasitical and bacterial infections.
2. Maintain Healthy Weight It includes proper blood pressure, less likely to allow diseases like diabetes, heart malfunctioning etc.
3. Provide Stress Relief It includes side effects of drugs, boost immune system of the body and helps to maintain calm and coping abilities.
4. Good Start to Future Generations It includes healthy babies, better immune system, healthy pregnancy etc.

1 Mark Questions
Question.1. What are fats? [CBSE 2013]
Answer. Fats are the energy boosters which provide us with twice as much energy as carbohydrates. We can store extra fat in our body to be used later. Butter, ghee and nuts are rich sources of fats; too much of fats can lead to diseases like blood pressure, heart problems and obesity.

Question.2. What do you mean by components of diet?
Answer. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals and water are called components of diet. These components are composed of various elements such as carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and other macro and micro elements like calcium, iron, zinc etc.

Question.3. What is balanced diet?
Or
What do you mean by balanced diet?
Answer. A diet that contains sufficient amount of proteins, fats, carbohydrates, minerals, salts, vitamins and water is called balanced diet. A balanced diet is that which contains the proper amount of each nutrient required by our body.

Question.4. What are vitamins?
Answer. Vitamins are compounds of carbon which are essential for the normal growth and working of the body. They are required in very small quantities.
The important vitamins are A, C, D, E, K and B-complex (B1, B2, B3, Bs, B6, B7, B9 and B12). Vitamins are found in milk, butter, eggs, green vegetables, oil, nuts, fish, amla etc.

Question.5. What are carbohydrates?
Answer. Carbohydrates are compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
Sources Fruits, milk, vegetables, pulses, bajra, rice, cakes etc.
Functions The main function of carbohydrates is to provide energy for the body, brain and nervous system.

Question.6. What do you mean by food and nutrition?
Answer. Food is a mixture of various substances which are essential for life, whereas nutrition is a dynamic process in which the body is made healthy by the consumption of food.

Question.7. What is Glycemic Index?
Answer. Glycemic Index (GI) is a scale of how much a particular type of food raises blood sugar over a two-hour period compared to pure glucose.

Question.8. List the goals of nutrition during competition.
Answer. The goals of nutrition during competition are to

1. stay hydrated
2.  provide immediate fuel
3. boost performance
4. preserve muscle and
5.  improve recovery.

3 Marks Questions
Question.9. Discuss the role of fats on the performance of sports persons.
Answer. Fats are considered as a major source of fuel for light to moderate levels of activity. Various sports require different proportions of fat in the muscles for maximum performance. Particularly for long distance runners and swimmers, fat is very important, as lack of fat will reduce the available amount of calories required by the body for the exercise undertaken. Fat is important to meet the demands of energy. When the body has used up the calories from carbohydrates, which occurs after the first 40 minutes of exercises, it begins to depend on calories from fat.

Question.10. Explain about any two components of diet in brief.
Answer. (i) Proteins Proteins are the basic structure of all living cells. The basic structure of proteins is a chain of amino-acids that contain carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen.
There are two types of proteins:
(a) Non-essential proteins (b) Essential proteins
Functions:
(a) Proteins are essential for growth and development of children.
(b) The cells of muscles and ligaments are maintained with proteins.
(ii) Carbohydrates Carbohydrates are the main source of energy in all activities. These provide energy to the body and are not stored in the body for a long time.
Carbohydrates are of two types:
(a) Simple carbohydrates
(b) Complex carbohydrates
Function The main function of carbohydrates is to provide energy for the body, especially the brain and nervous system.

Question.11. What are vitamins? Name the types of vitamins.
Answer. Vitamins are compounds of carbon. These protect us from various diseases and are essential for general growth and development of our body.
Types of Vitamins There are various vitamins such as A, C, D, E, K and B-complex (Bt, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 and B12)
There are two groups of vitamins

1.  Fat Soluble Vitamins Fat soluble vitamins are those vitamins which are soluble in fat. These vitamins are A, D, E and K.
2.  Water Soluble Vitamins These vitamins are soluble in water. These contain the elements of nitrogen and sulphur. These vitamins are B and C.

12. What are the uses of any two minerals in our diet?
Answer.

1.  Iodine For creativity as well as proper activity of the thyroid gland, iodine is essential. Its deficiency may stop the growth of hair. It is found in rich quantity in sea fish. Iodised salt is normally the main source of iodine in a normal diet.
2. Calcium Calcium is helpful in the formation of teeth and bones. It helps in clotting of blood. It also maintains the balance between acids and bases in our bodies. Milk, cheese, oranges and green vegetables have a rich amount of calcium.

Question.13. What are the effects of good nutrition on an individual?
Answer. Effects of good nutrition on an individual are

1. Prevent Disease It includes prevention from cancer, tissues disease, parasitical and bactarial infections.
2. Maintain Healthy Weight It includes proper blood pressure, less likely to allow diseases like diabetes, heart malfunctioning etc.
3. Provide Stress Relief It includes side effects of drugs, boost immune system of the body and helps to maintain calm and coping abilities.
4.  Good Start to Future Generations It includes healthy babies, better immune system, healthy pregnancy etc.

Question.14. Discuss the functions and sources of proteins.
Or
What are proteins? Discuss.
Answer. Proteins are the basic structure of all living cells. These are complex organic compounds. Protein is a ’ chain of amino-acids that contain carbon, oxygen hydrogen and nitrogen.
These are two types of proteins
(i) Non-essential proteins
(ii) Essential proteins
Sources All meat and other animal products are sources of proteins. The best sorces are eggs, milk, meat, poultry, milk products, beans etc.
Functions
(a) The cells of muscles and ligaments are maintained with protein.
(b) Proteins are needed for growth and development of children.
(c) Proteins are the main components of muscles, organs and glands.

Question.15. What is balanced diet? Elaborate the important nutrients/elements of balanced diet.
Answer. Balanced Diet A diet that contains the right amount of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, minerals, salts, vitamins and water is called balanced diet. Elements

1.  Carbohydrates These are our main source of energy.
2. Proteins These provide essential growth as well as repairing muscles and other body tissues.
3. Fats These are the source of energy.
4. Vitamins These play an important role in many chemical processes in the body.
5. Minerals These are essential for proper growth and functioning of our body.
6. Water It is essential for normal body functions. It serves as a vehicle for carrying other nutrients.

Question.16. What are vitamins? Write the sources of vitamins A, D, E and K.
Answer. Vitamins Vitamins are the compounds of carbon that are absolutely essential for the normal growth and working of the body. These are required in a very small quantities.
Sources
Vitamin-A Milk, butter, eggs, carrots, pumpkin and green vegetables.
Vitamin-D Cheese, butter, milk, green vegetables and exposure to sunlight.
Vitamin-E Vegetable oil, butter, milk, whole grains, com, nuts, seeds and spinach.
Vitamin-K Cabbage, cauliflower, spinach and other vegetables. Bacteria in the intestines normally also produce vitamin-K.

Question.17. Discuss the functions and sources of fats.
Answer. Fats are an essential ingredient of food. Fat is also a compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
Functions of Fats:

1.  They provide heat and energy to the body.
2. They also help in regulation of body temperature.
3.  They are considered better than carbohydrates as sources of energy.
4. They are helpful in making the body soft and oily and protect it from external effects of hot and cold climates.

Sources of Fats:

1. Animal Sources We get various products from animals such as ghee, butter, curd, fish oil, milk, meat and eggs.
2. Vegetables Sources We also get fats from various vegetables such as dry fruits, coconut, , soyabean, food grains, mustard oil and cotton seeds.

Question.18. What are fats? Write a detailed note on its types. Also mention its importance in the proper functioning of the body. [CBSE 2012]
Answer. Fats contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. These are the most concentrated source of energy in food. One gram of fat provides double the energy provided by one gram of carbohydrates.
Sources of Fats Animal products like meat, poultry and dairy products like milk, cream, cheese, butter and ice-cream, peanuts, olive oil etc.
Types Fats can be classified according to their structures. Different types of fats have different characteristics and these react in different ways inside the body. There are three different groups of fats in the diet which are saturated, poly-unsaturated and mono-unsaturated fats. The intake of saturated fats increases the chances of heart diseases due to the increase of cholesterol in the blood. Poly-unsaturated fats and mono-unsaturated fats help in lowering the blood cholesterol.
Importance:

1. Fats are necessary for many body functions.
2. Fats keep up warm and give protection to organs.
3. Fats also help in production of hormones.
4. Fatty acids provide the raw materials which help in control of blood pressure, blood clotting and other body functions.
5. Fats are also important energy sources.
6. Fats help in transportation of fat soluble vitamins like A, D, E and K.
7. Fats maintain skin and hair.

Question.19. What is the major goal of a pre-competition meal? When should it be taken and why?
Answer. The major goal of a pre-competition meal is to maximize carbohydrate stores in the muscles and liver and to top up blood glucose stores. This meal should preferably be taken about three hours prior to the start of the competition. If taken later than this, it results in performing with a full stomach, which causes nausea – the body’s attempt to cease exercise so that it can redirect blood flow back to the stomach. An exception is of consuming carbohydrate immediately prior to the start of a game in the form of a sports drink 5 or 10 minutes before competition.

5 Marks Questions
Question.20. What is a balanced diet? Explain its elements.
Or
Explain in detail the different elements of diet.
Answer. Balanced diet is the intake of appropriate types and right / sufficient amount of food and drinks to supply nutrition and energy for maintenance of body cells, tissues and organs and to support normal growth and development.
Elements of Diet There are many nutrients in the food. These are known as elements.Basic elements of our diet are

1. Carbohydrates These are the compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
   Sources Fruits, milk, vegetables, pulses, bajra, rice, cakes etc.
   Functions The main function of carbohydrate is to provide energy to the body, brain and nervous system.
2.  Proteins Proteins are a chain of amino-acids that contain carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen.
   Sources Eggs, milk, meat, beans and animal products etc.
   Functions Proteins are the main components of muscles, organs and glands. The cells of muscles and ligaments are maintained with protein and proteins are used for the growth and development of children.
3. Fats Fats cantain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
   Sources Animal products, milk, cream, cheese, butter, olive oil etc.
   Functions Fats are a source of energy. They are important for the proper functioning of the body. Fatty acids provide the raw materials which help in control of blood pressure.
4. Vitamins Vitamins are compounds of carbon. The important vitamins are A, C, D E, K and B- complex (B1B2 B3 B5 B6, B7 B9 and B12).
   Sources Milk, butter, eggs, green vegetables, exposure to sunlight, oil, nuts, seeds, fish, am/a etc.
   Functions Vitamins play an important role in many chemical processes in the body. Vitamins are essential for metabolism of fat and carbohydrate and are needed for healthy skin. They are helpful in RBC production.
5. Minerals Minerals are iron, calcium, phosphorus, sodium, iodine, copper, chloride etc. Sources Eggs, milk, meat, green vegetables, pulses, fish, salts, tea and coffee etc.
   Functions Minerals are essential for proper growth of the body. Calcium is needed for strong teeth and bones. It is also essential for proper thyroid function.
6. Water Water is an important element of balanced diet. Source Natural.
   Functions Water helps in the digestive system. It breaks down complex food molecules. It also regulates the body temperature and is essential for various chemical reactions.

Question.21. Discuss the role of diet on the performance of a sportsperson.
Answer. The energy requirement of an athlete depends on:

1. Quality Carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals and fluids.
2.  Quantity Calories according to the sport.
3. Variety Different types of food.
4. Portability Proper cooking.
5.  Acceptability of Nutrients To suit different customs, habits and tastes.
   The quality of a sports diet depends on the correct proportion of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, minerals, salts etc, which constitute the main nutrients of diet.

Functions of different elements of diet are:

1.  Carbohydrates are helpful in increasing endurance.
2. Protein is necessary for the growth and development of various tissues of the bdy.
3.  A minimum amount of fat is desirable for a long distance runner, high jumper or gymnast.
4. Diet prevents various diseases.
5. Vitamins are essential for good performance.
6. Vitamin-B complex helps in increasing the internal strength of our systems.
7. Vitamin-E is beneficial in the treatment of heart diseases.
8. Diet maintains healthy weight.
9. Diet provides stress relief.
10. Diet maintains normal body functions and proper blood sugar levels.
11. Diet gives positive psychological feeling.
12. Diet provides enough glycogen storage.
13. Proteins are necessary for the growth and development of various tissues of the body.
14. Minerals deficiency can decrease performance, especially during exercises in hot climate.

A normal person needs around 2100 – 2800 calories per day. An athlete may need up to 5000 to 7000 calories per day. At training or competition time, the best food is to take in a small amount of non-carbonated fruits, juices or non-carbonated soft drinks.
Eating Diet Before Performance We should eat suitable foods in the breakfast like cereals, porridge, bread or toast, fruit juice, boiled rice, potatoes, biscuits etc.

Question.22. What are the goals of eating during competition? Explain the two different categories of such nutrition, indicating the different requirements.
Answer. The goals of eating during competition are to :

1. stay hydrated
2. provide immediate fuel
3.  boost performance
4. preserve muscle and
5. improve recovery.

The two different categories of this nutrition are :

1. competitions less than two hours long, and
2. competitions more than two hours long.

For the first category, the main focus should be on hydration. This is especially true if you’re using good pre-and post-training nutrition. So make sure you consume plenty of water. However, if you’re exercising in the heat and sweating a lot, sports drinks maybe useful since they have electrolytes that help speed hydration and recovery.
For the second category, sports drinks are helpful. Every hour you will need 15 grams of proteins and 30 to 45 grams of carbohydrates, which can be taken in the form of liquids, gels or solid food. However, ensure that you get enough electrolytes, especially sodium. This can be in the form of table salt added to any drink.

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Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Test and Measurement in Sports is part of Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Test and Measurement in Sports.

Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Test and Measurement in Sports

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
What is a test in sports?
Answer:
Test in sports means content knowledge, fitness levels, motor skills as well as attitudes and feelings required for the particular sport.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of the term ‘measurement’ in sports?
Answer:
Measurement is a specific score given by an expert every time on applying a test. Each score tells about the use of a test once. Every time a test is used, it must have its score called measurement.

Question 3.
What is Slaughter-Lohman Children Skinfold test?
Answer:
Slaughter – Lohman Children Skinfold is a standard test used to measure the body fat in children under the age group 6-17 years. In this test, the skin in the triceps and calf region is measured and then the measurement is inserted into a formula to know the level of body fat.

Question 4.
Name the tests which we use for cardiovascular fitness.
Answer:
The tests which we use for cardiovascular fitness are the Harvard Step Test and Rockport Test.

Question 5.
Calculate the Physical Fitness Index for a 12-year-old boy having completed Harvard Step Test for a duration of 3 min and a pulse rate of 54 beats for 1 to 1.5 min, 50 beats for 2 to 2.5 min and 46 beats for 3 to 3.5 min.
Answer:
Physical Fitness Index
\(\begin{aligned} &=\frac{\text { Duration of exercise in seconds } \times 100}{2 \times \text { Sum of pulse counts in recovery }} \\ &=180 \times 100 / 2 \times(54+50+46)=60 \end{aligned}\)

Question 6.
Calculate the Physical Fitness Index using a short formula for a 12-year-old boy having completed the Harvard Step Test for a duration of 3 minutes and a pulse rate of 54 beats for 1 to 1.5 minutes. (CBSE Model Question Paper 2015)
Answer:
Physical Fitness Index (short formula)
= (100 x test duration in seconds) divided by (55 × pulse count between 1 and 1.5 minutes)
= 100 × 180/5.5 × 54= 60.6

Question 7.
Which motor quality does a senior citizen lack who finds difficulty in tying the shoelaces while sitting on a chair? (CBSE Model Question Paper 2015)
Answer:
The senior citizen lacks lower body flexibility.

Question 8.
Your grandmother feels she has reduced her upper body flexibility and therefore she wants to test herself. Which test would you suggest to her? (All Indio 2017; CBSE Delhi 2015)
Answer:
I would suggest to my grandmother to take the Back Scratch Test for upper body flexibility under the Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness Tests.

Question 9.
Which test would you suggest for your grandmother to test lower body flexibility? (All Indio 2015)
Answer:
I would suggest the Chair Sit and Reach Test for my grandmother to test lower body flexibility.

Question 10.
How can the body fat percentage be computed?
Answer:
The body fat percentage can be computed through finding out the Body Mass Index (BMI) which is a measure of body fat calculated on the basis of height and weight.

3 Marks Questions

Question 11.
List the six items of ‘AAHPER’ motor fitness test.
Answer:
The six items of ‘AAHPER’ motor fitness test are

• Pull-ups (for boys)/Flexed arm hang (for girls)
• Flexed leg sit-ups
• Shuttle run
• Standing long jump
• 50-yard dash
• 600-yard run-walk

Question 12.
What is General Motor Fitness? How can it be measured?
Answer:
General motor fitness is an athlete’s general ability to perform different motor skills without getting too much fatigued. There are three tests to measure general motor fitness

1. Standing Broad Jump This test measures the explosive leg power. If the athlete is fit and has explosive strength then he can use leg power to jump forward. By this test, the fitness of lower limbs is measured.
2. Zig-Zag Run This test measures the agility of the athletes as they are required to run through the zig-zag path created by placing cones. Athletes are not supposed to touch or knock the cones while running.
3. Medicine Ball Put This test measures the arm and shoulder girdle explosive strength. The athletes are required to throw the medicine ball with specific weight as far as possible. For boys it is 5 kg, for girls it is 1 kg.

Question 13.
Explain the Rockport Test. (All India 2017)
Answer:
The Rockport Test tells us about the aerobic fitness of an individual. In this test, the time taken to finish the walk, exercising heart rate, body mass, age and gender are noted. These parameters are inserted in an equation to predict aerobic fitness.
The Rockport Test is performed on a 400-metre standard track. After walking for one mile, the heart rate is measured at the wrist for 15 seconds immediately after completion. The actual heart rate is determined by multiplying that number by 4. The time taken to complete the 1 mile is converted to the nearest hundredth of a minute. ‘

Question 14.
Give the names of the tests designed by Rikli and Jones for senior citizen fitness and state what each test is used to test.
Answer:
The tests designed by Rikli and Jones for senior citizen fitness are

• Chair Stand Test for lower body strength.
• Arm Curl Test for upper body strength and endurance.
• Chair Sit and Reach Test for lower body flexibility.
• Back Scratch Test for upper body flexibility.
• Eight Foot Up and Go Test for coordination and agility.
• Six’Minute Walk Test for aerobic fitness and endurance.

Question 15.
What is the usefulness of the Back Scratch Test for senior citizens?
Answer:
The usefulness of the Back Scratch Test for senior citizens is to assess the upper body ‘ flexibility, particularly, the shoulders. The . shoulder stretch is a simple flexibility test to determine if the hands can be brought together behind the back particularly the shoulders. This test is part of the fitness programme as an alternative to the back saver sit and reach test.

Question 16.
Describe in detail ‘Eight Foot Up and Go Test’ for agility.
OR
Explain the procedure for Eight Foot Up and Go Test. (All Indio 2016)
Answer:
The Eight Foot Up and Go Test is a coordination and agility test for the elderly. The purpose of this test is to measure speed, agility and balance while moving: The procedure is

1. Place the chair next to a wall for safety and the marker 8 feet in front of the chair. Clear the path between the chair and the marker.
2. The subject should start fully seated, hands resting on the knees and feet flat on the ground.
3. On the. command -go’, the stopwatch is started and the subject stands and walks (no running is allowed) as quickly as possible as to and around the cone, returning to the chair to Sit down
4. The score is the better time of two trials to the nearest l/10th sec.

Question 17.
Describe the purpose and procedure of the Six Minute Walk Test for aerobic endurance.
Answer:
Purpose This test measures aerobic fitness and endurance of senior citizens. Procedure The walking course is laid out in a 50 yard (45.72 m) rectangular area (dimension 45 x 5yards) with cones placed at regular intervals to indicate distance walked. The aim of this test is to walk as quickly as possible for six minutes to cover as much ground as possible. Subjects are to set their own pace (a preliminary trial is useful to practise pacing) and are allowed to stop for a rest if they desire.

5 Marks Questions

Question 18.
Describe the Kraus Weber Test in detail.
OR
Explain the procedure for conducting the Kraus Weber Test for measuring minimum muscular strength. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The Kraus Weber Test is a test of minimum muscular fitness of the various muscles of the body. The test consists of six items which indicate the level of muscular strength and flexibility of key muscle groups. Usually, the scoring of each item is graded either on pass/fail basis or a range of scoring from zero to ten. A subject’s grade of zero means that the subject has failed in a particular test item; score ranges from one to ten are for subjects who pass these test items.

The six tests are

• Test 1 tests the strength of the abdominal and psoas muscles.
• Test 2 tests the strength of the abdominal muscles.
• Test 3 tests the strength of the psoas muscles.
• Test 4 tests the strength of the upper back.
• Test 5 tests the strength of the lower back.
• Test 6 tests the strength of the back and hamstring muscles.

Question 19.
Explain the AAHPER physical fitness test.
Answer:
The AAHPER (American Alliance for Health, Physical Education and Recreation) youth fitness test was formed in 1965 in United States, but was revised in 1976. Later, dance was also added and it was known as AAHPERD.
The students are advised to warm up before they participate in the test. All the students must be medically fit.

This test has the following six items

• Pull-ups (for boys) / Flexed arm hang (for girls) to measure arm and shoulder strength.
• Flexed leg sit-ups to measure abdominal strength and endurance.
• Shuttle runs to measure speed and agility.
• Standing long jump to measure power.
• 50-yard dash to measure speed.
• 600-yard run-walk to measure endurance.

Question 20.
Explain the measurement of cardiovascular fitness Harvard Step Test.
OR
What is the Harvard Step Test? Mention the equipment required to perform it and explain its procedure. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
The Harvard Step Test is a test that measures cardiovascular fitness. The equipment required to perform the test are bench 20 inches high, stopwatch and metronome. The procedure is that the performer steps up and down 30 times a minute on the bench. Each time the subject should step all the way up on the bench with the body erect. The stepping exercise continues for exactly 5 minutes unless the performer is forced to stop sooner due to exhaustion.

As soon as he stops exercising, the performer sits on a chair quietly while pulse rates are counted at 1 to I ‘A, 2 to 2 ‘/i and 3 to VA minutes after the exercise. The Physical Fitness Index (PFI) is computed using the formula

Question 21.
How the cardiovascular fitness is measured with the help of ‘Harvard Step Test’? Write in detail about its administrative procedure. (All Indio 2016)
OR
Explain in brief ‘The Harvard Step Test.’ (All India 2015)
Answer:
‘Harvard Step Test’ is a test to measure cardiovascular fitness with the help of a 20 inch high bench, a stopwatch and a metronome.
The administrative procedure of this test is given below The performer steps up and down 30 times a minute on the bench. Each time the subject should step all the way up on the bench with the body erect.

The stepping process is performed in four parts in the following sequence

• One foot is placed on bench.
• The other foot is placed on bench.
• One foot is placed on the floor.
• The other foot is placed on the floor.

The performer may lead with either foot and can change as long as the four parts of the test are maintained. The stepping exercise continues for exactly 5 minutes, unless the performer is forced to stop sooner because of exhaustion. As soon as he stops exercising, the performer sits on a chair
quietly while pulse rates are counted 1 to \(1 \frac{1}{2}, 2\) to \(2 \frac{1}{2}\), and 3 to \(3 \frac{1}{2}\) minutes after the exercise.
A Physical Fitness Index (PFI) is computed, utilising the following formula

Question 22.
Describe the procedure for administering the Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness Test. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
The-Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness Test for assessing the functional fitness of older adults describes easy to understand and effective tests to measure aerobic fitness; strength and flexibility using minimal and inexpensive equipment.
These test items involve common activities such as getting up from a chair, walking, lifting, binding and stretching.
The tests were developed to be safe and enjoyable for older adults while still meeting scientific standards for reliability and validity.

The tests are

• Chair Stand Test – testing lower body strength
• Arm Curl Test – testing upper body strength
• Chair Sit and Reach Test – testing lower body flexibility test
• Back Scratch Test – testing upper body flexibility test
• Eight Foot Up and Go Test – testing agility test
• Six-minute Walk Test – aerobic fitness and endurance

Question 23.
Explain the Arm Curl Test for upper body strength for senior citizens.
Answer:
The Arm Curl Test is a test of upper body strength. The purpose of this test is to measure upper body strength and endurance. The subject has to do as many arm curls as possible in 30 sec. This test is conducted on the dominant arm side (or stronger side).
Its procedure is

1. The subject sits on the chair holding the weight (8 pounds for men / 5 pounds for women) in the hand using a suitcase grip (palm facing towards the body) with the arrriin a vertically down position beside the chair.
2. The upper arm is held close to the body so that only the lower arm is moving.
3. The subject curls the arm up through a full range of motion, gradually turning the palm up (flexion with supination)
4. Then the arm is lowered through the full range of motion, gradually return to the starting position. The arm must be fully bent and then fully straightened at the elbow.
5. Repeat this action as.many times as possible within 30 sec.
6. The score is the total number of controlled arm curls performed in 30 sec.

Question 24.
Describe the measurement of flexibility using the Chair Sit and Reach Test.
OR
Explain the procedure of Chair Sit acrid Reach Test for senior citizens. ‘
Answer:
The Chair Sit and Reach Test is part of the senior fitness test protocol and is designed to test the functional fitness of seniors.
Purpose This test measures lower body flexibility.
Equipment Required Ruler, a chair with straight back or folding chief \seat 17 inch/44 cm high).
Procedure The subject sits bn the chair placed against a wall for safety.

One foot must remain flat pn the floor. The other leg is extended forward with .the knee s traight, heel touching the floor, with ankle bent at 90°. Place one hand on top of’the other with tips of the middle fingers even, exhale and reach forward towards the toes by bending at the hip. Keep the back straight and head up.

Avoid bouncing or quick movements and never stretch to the point of pain. Keep the knee straight and hold the reach for 2 sec. The distance to be measured is between the finger tips and the toes. If the fingertips touch the toes then the score is zero. If they do not touch, measure the distance between the fingers and the toes (a negative score); if they overlap, measure by how much (a positive score). Perform two trials and record the better score. .

Question 25.
What are the six test items of the Kraus Weber muscular strength test?
Answer:
The six test items of the Kraus Weber muscular strength test are given below

1. Abdominals Plus Psoas (hip flexing) Muscles The subject lies supine with hands behind the neck. The feet are held by the examiner. On command, the subject rolls up into a sitting position. This is a test of the strength of abdominal and psoas muscles. If the subject performs one sit-up then passes otherwise score remains zero.
2. Abdominals Minus Psoas The subject lies supine, hands behind neck and knees bent. On command, the subject tries to roll up into a sitting position. This is a further test of abdominal muscles without psoas. Scoring is like test 1.
3. Psoas or P The subject lies supine with hands behind the neck and legs extended. On command, the feet are lifted 25 cms (10 inches) above the ground and maintained for ten seconds. This is a test for the strength of psoas and lower abdominal muscles. Scoring depends on the number of seconds the exact position is held.
4. Upper Back or UB The subject lies prone with a pillow under the abdomen but far enough down to give a see-saw effect. He holds his hands behind the neck. The examiner holds down the feet and asks the subject to raise up his chest, head and shoulders and maintain the position for ten seconds. This test is for the strength of the upper back muscles. Scoring is like test 3.
5. Lower Back or LB The subject lies prone over the pillow and places his hands in front and rests his head on them. The examiner holds the chest down and asks the subject to lift his legs up without bending the knees and maintain the position for ten seconds. This is a test for the strength of the lower back muscles. Scoring is like test 3.
6. Back and Hamstring or BH The subject stands erect with his hands at sides and feet together. On command, he leans down slowly to touch the floor with his fingertips. The knees are kept straight and the leaning down position is maintained for ten seconds. No bouncing is allowed to touch. This tests the length of back and hamstring muscles and is a test of flexibility. Scoring is like the above tests.

Value Based Questions

Question 26.
While taking medicine by Rony’s grandfather, a pill was dropped which slipped under the bed. The old man was not able to bend down. Seeing this, Rony quickly picked up the pill from under the bed and also poured a glass of water to his grandpa to swallow the pill.
(i) What values are shown by Rony?
(it) Which test can be suggested to measure the fitness of grandpa?
(iii) Who prepared the physical fitness tests for elderly people?
Answer:
(i) The values shown by Rony are helpful, kindness, care and respect for the elderly.
(ii)The test that can be suggested is Chair Sit and Reach Test as it measures lower body flexibility.
(iii) The tests for the elderly were prepared by Rikli and Jones. That is why these tests are called Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness Test.

Question 27.
After failing in the pull-up activity, the sports teacher advised Arun not to loose hope as five other tests were remaining. He also advised Arun and other students to do proper warm up before their participation.
(i) Which test is being talked about in this question? Name its parts.
(ii) What values are shown by the sports teacher?
Answer:
(i) The test is AAHPER (American Alliance for Health, Physical Education and Recreation).
Its parts are as follows

• Pull-ups (for boys) / Flexed arms hang (for girls)
• Flexed leg sit-ups
• Shuttle run
• Standing long jump
• 50-yard dash

(ii) 600-yard run-walk.
(iii) The values shown by the sports teacher are commitment and excellence. The teacher shows care, dedication and also motivates the students.

1 Mark Questions
Question.1. What is a test in sports?
Answer. In scientific terms, test means an instrument to be used for measuring anything. It may be running, walking etc. (for fitness testing)

Question.2. What is the meaning of the term ‘measurement’ in sports?
Answer. Measurement is a specific score given by an expert every time on applying a test. Each score tells about the use of a test once. Every time a test is used, it must have its score called measurement.

Question.3. Write the formula for calculating cardiovascular fitness in Rockport test.
Answer. The formula for calculating cardiovascular fitness is

Question.4. We generally use Harvard step test for cardiovascular fitness. In this test how do we calculate the physical efficiency index (PEI)?
Answer. In the Harvard step test for cardiovascular fitness, the physical efficiency index

Question.5. Name the tests which we use for cardiovascular fitness?
Answer. The tests which we use for cardiovascular fitness are Harvard step test and Rockport one mile test.

Question.6. Which motor quality does a senior citizen lack who finds difficulty in tying the shoe laces while sitting on a chair?
Answer. The senior citizen lacks lower body flexibility.

Question.7. Calculate the Physical Fitness Index for a 12 year old boy having completed Harvard step test for a duration of 3 min and a pulse rate of 54 beats for 1 to 1.5 min, 50 beats for 2 to 2.5 min and 46 beats for 3 to 3.5 min.
Answer.

3 Marks Questions
Question.8. List the six items of ‘AAHPER’ motor fitness test.
Answer. The six items of ‘AAHPER’ motor fitness test are

1. Pull-Ups for boys/Flexed arm hang for girls
2.  Flexed leg sit ups
3.  Shuttle run
4.  Standing long jump
5.  50 yard dash
6.  600 yard run-walk

Question.9. What parts of the body do each of the Kraus Weber tests of fitness test?
Answer. The Kraus Weber test consists of following six tests

• Test 1 tests the strength of the abdominal and psoas muscles.
• Test 2 tests the strength of the abdominal muscles.
• Test 3 tests the strength of the psoas muscles.
• Test 4 tests the strength of the upper back.
•  Test 5 tests the strength of the lower back.
• Test 6 tests the strength of the back and hamstring muscles.

Question.10. Give the names of the tests design by Rikli and Jones for senior citizen fitness and state what each test is used to test.
Answer. The tests design by Rikli and Jones for senior citizen fitness are

1. Chair stand test for lower body strength.
2.  Arm curl test for upper body strength and endurance.
3. Chair sit and reach test for lower body flexibility.
4. Back scratch test for upper body flexibility.
5.  Eight foot up and go test for coordination and agility.
6.  Six minute walk test for aerobic fitness and endurance.

Question.11. Describe the purpose and procedure of six minute walk test for aerobic endurance.
Answer. Purpose This test measures aerobic fitness and endurance of senior citizens.
Procedure The walking course is laid out in a 50 yard (45.72 mt.) rectangular area (dimension 45×5 yards) with cones placed at regular intervals to indicate distance walked. The aim of this test is to walk as quickly as possible for six minutes to cover as much ground as possible. Subjects are to set their own pace (a preliminary trial is useful to practice pacing) and are able to stop for a rest if they desire.

Question.12. Which test will you conduct for lower body strength of senior citizens and what is its procedure?
Answer. We will conduct the Chair Stand Test for lower body strength of senior citizens. Its procedure is ,

1. Place the chair against a wall or otherwise stabilise it for safety. The subject sits in the middle of the seat with his feet shoulder width apart, flat on the floor. The arms are to be crossed at the wrists and held close to the chest.
2.  From the sitting position, the subject stands completely up, then completely back down and this is repeated for 30 sec. Count the total number of complete chair stands (up and down equals one stand).

Question.13. Describe in detail ‘Eight foot up and go test for agility’.
Answer. The eight foot up and go test is a coordination and agility test for the elderly. The purpose of this test is to measure speed, agility and balance while moving. The procedure is,

1. Place the chair next to a wall (for safety) and the marker 8 feet in front of the chair. Clear the ( path between the chair and the marker.
2.  The subject should start fully seated, hands resting on the knees and feet flat on the ground.
3. On the command ‘Go’, the timing is started and the subject stands and walks (no running is allowed) as quickly as possible as to and around the cone, returning to the chair to sit down.
4.  The score is the better time of two trials to the nearest 1/10th of a sec.

Question.14. Explain the Arm Curl Test for upper body strength for senior citizens.
Answer. The Arm Curl Test is a test of upper body strength. The purpose of this test is to measure upper body strength and endurance. The subject has to do as many arms curls as possible in 30 sec. This test is conducted on the dominant arm side (or stronger side). Its procedure is

1. The subject sits on the chair holding the weight (8 pounds for men / 5 pounds for women) in the hand using a suitcase grip (palm facing towards the body) with the arm in a vertically down position beside the chair.
2. The upper arm is placed against the body so that only the lower arm is moving (the tester may assist to hold the upper arm steady).
3. The subject curls the arm up through a full range of motion, gradually turning the palm up (flexion with supination).
4.  Then the arm is lowered through the full range of motion, gradually return to the starting position. The arm must be fully bent and then fully straightened at the elbow.
5. Repeat this action as many times as possible within 30 sec.
6.  The score is the total number of controlled arm curls performed in 30 sec.

Question.15. What is the usefulness of back scratch test for senior citizens?
Answer. The usefulness of the back scratch test for senior citizens is to assess the upper body flexibility, particularly the shoulder. This is important in performing various items of daily routine like combing one’s hair, putting on garments requiring to be worn from over the head, reaching for a seat belt etc.

Question.16. Explain the procedure of the Chair sit and Reach Test for senior citizens.
Answer. The procedure for the Chair Sit and Reach Test is

1. The subject sits on the edge of the chair (placed against a wall for safety). One foot must remain flat on the floor. The other leg is extended forward with the knee straight, heel touching the floor, with ankle bent at 90°.
2.  Place one hand on top of the other with tips of the middle fingers even, exhale and reach forward towards the toes by bending at the hip. Keep the back straight and head up.
3. Avoid bouncing or quick movements and never stretch to the point of pain. Keep the knee straight and hold the reach for 2 sec.
4. The distance to be measured is between the finger tips and the toes. If the finger tips touch the toes, the score is zero. If they do not touch, measure the distance between the fingers and the toes (a negative score); if they overlap, measure by how much (a positive score).
5.  Perform two trials and record the better score to the nearest 1/2 inch or 1 cm as the distance reached, either as a negative or positive score. Record which leg was used for measurement.

Question.17. Regular physical activities cannot stop the clock of ageing; but definitely it can slow the process. Justify.
Answer. Regular exercise can delay the ageing process, as, by regular exercise, all the body functions are working properly and blood supply to all the organs improves the efficiency of an individual. Regular exercise also makes muscles strong. Regular exercise delays the ageing process by

1.  Increasing the heart rate and stroke volume.
2.  Increasing the cardiac output.
3.  Increase in the size of lungs and the heart.

5 Marks Questions
Question.18. Describe the Kraus Weber Test in detail.
Answer. The Kraus Weber Test is a test of minimum muscular fitness of the various muscles of the body. The test consists of six items which indicate the level of muscular strength and flexibility of key muscle groups.
Usually the scoring of each item is graded either on pass/ fail basis orarange of scoring from zero to ten. A subject’s grade of zero means that the subject has failed in’a particular test item; score ranges from one to ten are for subjects who pass these test items. The six tests are

• Test 1 tests the strength of the abdominal and psoas muscles.
• Test 2 tests the strength of the abdominal muscles.
•  Test 3 tests the strength of the psoas muscles.
•  Test 4 tests the strength of the upper back.
• Test 5 tests the strength of the lower back.
• Test 6 tests the strength of the back and hamstring muscles.

Question.19. Explain AAHPER physical fitness test.
Answer. The AAHPER (American Alliance for Health, Physical Education and Recreation) youth fitness test was formed in 1965 in United States, but was revised in 1976. This test was administered on school students of 17 years of age.
The students are advised to warm up before they participate in the test. All the students must be medically fit. This test has the following six items

1.  Pull ups (for boys) / Flexed arm hang (for girls) to measure arm and shoulder strength.
2.  Flexed leg sit ups to measure abdominal strength and endurance.
3. Shuttle run to measure speed and agility.
4.  Standing long jump to measure power.
5.  50 yard dash to measure speed.
6. 600 yard run-walk to measure endurance.

Question.20. Explain the measurement of cardiovascular fitness Harvard step test.
Answer. The procedure is that the performer steps up and down 30 times a minute on the bench. Each time the subject should step all the way up on the bench with the body erect. The stepping exercise continues for exactly 5 min, unless the performer is forced to stop sooner due to exhaustion.
As soon as he stops exercising, the performer sits on a chair quietly while pulse rates are counted at 1 to
1 1/2,  2 to  2 1/2 and  3 to  3 1/2 min after the exercise. The Physical Efficiency Index (PEI) is computed using the formula :

Question.21.Describe the measurement of flexibility using the Chair sit and reach test.
Answer.The Chair sit and reach test is part, of the senior fitness test protocol, and is designed to test the functional fitness of seniors

• Purpose This test measures lower body flexibility.
• Equipment Required Ruler, straight back or folding chair (seat 17 inch/ 44 cm high).
• Procedure The subject sits on the edge of the chair placed against a wall for safety.

One foot must remain flat on the floor. The other leg is extended forward with the knee straight, heel touching the floor, with ankle bent at 90°. Place one hand on top of the other with tips of the middle fingers even, exhale and reach forward towards the toes by bending at the hip. Keep the back straight and head up.
Avoid bouncing or quick movements and never stretch to the point of pain. Keep the knee straight and hold the reach for 2 sec. The distance to be measured is between the finger tips and the toes. If the finger tips touch the toes then the score is zero. If they do not touch, measure the distance between the fingers and the toes (a negative score); if they overlap, measure by how much (a positive score). Perform two trials and record the better score.

Question.22. Write about the measurement of cardiovascular fitness Rock port test.
Answer. The Rock port one mile walk test tells us about the aerobic fitness of an individual. In this test, the time taken to finish the walk, exercising heart rate, body mass, age and gender are noted. These parameters are inserted in an equation to predict aerobic fitness.
The Rock port one mile walk test is performed on a 400 m standard track. After walking for one mile, the heart rate is measured at the wrist for 15 sec immediately after completion. The actual heart rate is determined by multiplying this number by 4. The time taken to complete the 1 mile is converted to the nearest hundredth minute. The calculation of VO₂ is done with the help of the equation:

Question.23. Describe the procedure for administering the Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness Test.
Answer. The Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness Test for assessing the functional fitness of older adults describes easy to understand and effective tests to measure aerobic fitness, strength and flexibility using minimal and inexpensive equipment. The individual fitness test items involve common activities such as getting up from a chair, walking, lifting, bending and stretching. The tests were developed to be safe and enjoyable for older adults while still meeting scientific standards for reliability and validity. The tests are

1.  Chair Stand Test – testing lower body strength
2. Arm Curl Test – testing upper body strength
3. Chair sit and Reach Test – lower body flexibility test
4.  Back Scratch Test – upper body flexibility test
5.  8 Foot Up and Go Test – agility test
6. Walk Test (6 min) or Step in Place Test (2 min) – The Walk Test is used to assess aerobic fitness; however, if the person uses orthopedic devices when walking or has difficulty balancing, they do the Step in Place Test.

Physical EducationNCERT SolutionsRD Sharma Solutions

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Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Kinesiology Biomechanics and Sports is part of Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Kinesiology, Biomechanics and Sports.

Physical Education Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Kinesiology, Biomechanics and Sports

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
What is the difference between axis and plane?
Answer:
An axis is an imaginary line about which the body or limb rotates. A plane is an imaginary flat surface along which a movement takes place.

Question 2.
Elucidate projectile motion.
Answer:
It refers to the motion of an object projected into the air at an angle.

Question 3.
An object thrown into space either horizontally or at an acute angle under the action of gravity is called a projectile. Name the two forces which act on a projectile. All India 2017
Answer:
The two forces that act on a projectile are. propelling force and force of gravity.

Question 4.
What is the first law of Newton?
Answer:
This law states that a body at rest will remain at rest and a body in motion will remain ill motion at the same speed and in the same direction till any external force is applied on it to change state.

Question 5.
Explain what is ‘dynamic friction’? (All India 2016)
Answer:
Dynamic friction is the opposing force that comes into play when one body is actually moving over the surface of another body. Dynamic friction may be of two types i.e. sliding friction and rolling friction.

Question 6.
Enlist the methods of reducing friction.
Answer:
Methods of reducing friction are

• Polishing
• Lubrication
• Use of ball bearings
• Streamlining

3 Marks Questions

Question 7.
What is axis? What are its types?
Answer:
An axis is an imaginary line about which the body (or limb) rotates. It can he divided in three parts

1. Frontal Horizontal Axis Axis of the body that passes horizontally from side to side at. right angles to the sagittal plane.
2. Vertical Axis Axis of the body that passes from head to foot.at right angles to the transverse plane.
3. Sagittal Horizontal Axis Axis of the body. that passes from front to rear lying at right angles to the frontal plane.

Question 8.
What do you mean by plane? Explain its types
Answer:
A plane is an imaginary flat surface along which a movement takes place. It can be divided into three parts as follows :

• Sagittal Plane A vertical plane of the body. which passes from front to rear dividing the body into two symmetrical halves.
• Transverse Plane Any horizontal plane of the body which is parallel to the diaphragm; also called the horizontal plane.
• Frontal Plane Plane of the body which passes from side to side at right angles to the sagittal plane; also called the coronal plane.

Question 9.
Enumerate the laws of motion:
Answer:
The three laws of motion are

1. Newtons First Law of Motion This law is also known as law of inertia. This law states that a body at rest will remain at rest and a body in motion will remain in motion at the same speed and in the same direction till any external force is applied on it to change that state.
2. Newtons Second Law of Motion This law states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force producing it and inversely proportional to its mass.
   \(a=\frac{F}{m} \text { where } a \propto F, a \propto \frac{1}{m}\)
3. Newtons Third Law of Motion This law states that to every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction. This law describes what happens to a body when it exerts a force on another body.

Question 10.
How Newton’s second law and third law of motion can be applied in sports.
Answer:
Second Laws If a baseball player hits a ball with double the force the rate at which the ball will accelerate (speed up) will be doubled. Football players can slow down stop or reverse the direction of other players depending upon how much force they can generate and in which direction.

Third Law A swimmer propels herself through the water because the water offers enough counter force to oppose the action of her hands pushing allowing her to move. An athlete can jump higher off a solid surface because it opposes his body with as much force as he is able to generate in contrast to sand or another unstable surface.

Question 11.
“Friction is a necessary evil.” Justify your answer with suitable examples from sport. (CBSE Model Question Paper 2015)
Answer:
Friction is usually called a necessary evil. It means that it is essential in games and sports. Without friction we cannot give a better performance in the field of sports.

Examples are spikes used by athletes for running and studs used in football boots of the players. However, friction has disadvantages also. In cycling, there should not be more friction between road and the tyres of the cycle.

5 Marks Questions

Question 12.
Describe different types of movements.
Answer:
Physical activity is made possible by movements and motions. Every movement takes place in one plane and around one axis.
They are categorised by movement type as follows

1. Flexion It takes place when the angle decreases between the two bones attached to a joint.
2. Extension It takes place when the angle between the two bones attached to a joint increase. Both flexion and extension occur in the sagittal plane about the frontal axis.
3. Adduction It is a movement laterally toward the middle of the body.
4. Abduction It is a movement laterally away from the middle of the body. Both adduction and abduction occur in the frontal plane about the sagittal axis.

Question 13.
What are the major muscles that we use while we run?
Answer:
Following are the four muscles that we use while we run
(i) Quads (Quadriceps Femoris) Quads are muscle groups of four basic muscles located on our front thighs. They are

• The rectus femoris
• The vastus medialis
• The vastus lateralis
• The vastus intermedius.

Our quads are responsible for moving two of the joints used in running our knee joint and our hip joint. They work together to straighten our knees and bend our hips.
(ii) Quads (Quadriceps Femoris) Our hamstrings are made up of four muscle-parts on the back of your thighs. These are known as

• The semitendinosus
• The semimembranosus
• The biceps femoris
  (two parts long head and short head).

These four parts of our hamstrings allow us to flex our knees. The semitendinosus semimembranosus and the long head biceps femoris work together to extend the hips.
(iii) Hip Flexors (Iliopsoas) Our hip flexors (or iliopsoas) like our quads is comprised of a muscle group of two muscles

• The iliacus
• The psoas major

To our right the shortest muscle the iliacus begins on our pelvic crest (the iliac fossa) and stretches over to our thigh bone (femur). The larger of the muscles the psoas major stretches from our T-12 spinal vertebrae to our L-5 spinal vertebrae and there attaches to the femur. These two muscles work together to help our hips flex.

(iv) Calf Muscles Our calf muscles are located on the back of our leg below our knee. Though many anatomists see the calf muscle to be a single muscle (triceps surae) most say that it is a muscle group like our quads and hip flexors. This group consists of two main muscles

• The gastrocnemius
• The soleus

Our calf muscles will allow us to flex our knee and planter flex our ankle. Like our quads our calf muscles can be strengthened by doing squats. Other good strength-building exercises would include calf muscle raises and skipping!

Question 14.
Which muscles are used in jumping?
Answer:
Following muscles are used in jumping
1. Quadriceps The quadriceps rest on the front of thethighs and they have four components: the vastus medial vastus lateral rectus femoris and vastus intermedius. During a jump you perform hip flexion and knee extension which both activate the quadriceps. Hip flexion takes place when you move your thigh toward your stomach; knee extension takes place when you straighten your leg. A squat is a specific exercise that can help you gain more strength in the quads.

2. Hamstrings The hamstrings are opposing muscles to the quadriceps and have an opposite function. You activate your hamstrings through hip extension and knee flexion. Hip extension takes place when you bend your knee and move your heel toward your butt. Hip extension also causes you to work the glutes. From an anatomical standpoint the hamstrings have three parts: the biceps femoris semimembranosus. All parts get activated during the lowering phase and the explosive phase of a jump. A squat works the hamstrings but you can place more emphasis on them by doing a lunge.

3. Hip Flexors The hip flexors run from the lower stomach to the top of the thighs. They consist of the psoas major and iliacus and because of this they are often referred to as the iliopsoas. As the name implies these muscles get activated when you flex your hip in similar fashion to the quads.
Although these muscles are small they are important for explosive motions like sprinting a jumping. A lying leg raise is a good exercise to strengthen the hip flexors.

4. Calves The calyes hav.e two parts the gastrocnemius and soleus. The gastrocnemius has a lateral head and medial head and it is easily seen on the back of the leg right below the knee. The soleus sits anterior or in front of the gastrocnemius-. Both parts function to plantar-flex the foot. This motion occurs when you jump off the ground and point your toes downward.
Jumping rope is a good cardiovascular exercise to train these muscles because of the repetitive hopping you do on your toes. A tuck jump is a good exercise to.work your calves because it is specific to jumping.

Question 15.
Which muscles do we use in throwing?
Answer:
Following are the muscles which are used While throwing anything like ball football etc

1. Shoulder Muscles The deltoids are the muscles of your shoulder which play a crucial role in rotating your arm. Always warm up adequately by performing arm circles to avoid injuring your rotator cuff while performing shoulder exercises.
2. Triceps Your triceps are located on the back of your upper arm and aid in the process of extending your arm at the elbow. This action helps you release the ball with force and pushlt in the desired direction. To strengthen your triceps efficiently perform exercises such as triceps pushdowns with a rope or pulley and close-grip bench presses.
3. Latissimus Dorsi Your latissimus dorsi often referred to as your lats are located on either side of your spine. These large muscles help produce force for throwing and help transfer epergy from your legs to your upper body. Among the best exercises for strengthening your lats are pull upsseated cable rows and bent-over barbell rows.
4. Abdominals While many people exercise their abdominal muscles in hopes of attaining a six-pack this muscle group is highly functional as well. A strong core facilitates the transfer of power from your lower body to your upper body enabling your throws to benefit from the strength of your legs. Among the best exercises for your abs are hanging leg raises and Swiss ball crunch.
5. Quadriceps The quadriceps is the major muscle group located on the front of your thigh. This large group of muscle tissue helps you power the ball toward your intended target as you step into your throw. Among the most effective exercises for the quadriceps are the barbell step-up barbell lunge and barbell squats which also work your abdominal muscles.

Question 16.
Define trajectory. Describe the factors affecting the trajectory of a projectile. Delhi 2016
Answer:
A trajectory is a path described by a moving object or the path followed by a projectile. Examples are kicking a soccer ball a throw in cricket throwing a hammer etc.
Factors affecting projectile trajectory are
1. Propelling Force The propelling force produces certain effects depending upon its point and direction of application. If the application is directly through the projectiles centre of gravity only linear motion results from the force.

As the projecting force is moved further from the centre of gravity rotatory motion of the object increases at the expense of linear motion.

If the force is below the objects centre of gravity backspin results. Forward spin results when the force is above the centre of gravity. When the force is off centre to the left clockwise spin results and when it is off centre to right counter-clockwise spin occurs.

2. Force of Gravity As soon as contact is broken with a projected object the force of gravity begins to diminish the upward velocity of the object. Finally gravity overcomes the effects of the upward component of the projectile’s motion and the object begins to descend. The factors that determine how soon gravity will cause the object to descend are

• weight (mass) of the object
• amount of force driving it upward
• the effects of air resistance on the object.

3. Effect of Air Resistance As the speed of an object increases air resistance has a greater retarding effect. The more surface area an object presents in the direction of movement the greater will be the effect of air resistance.

Question 17.
Elucidate the types of friction.
Answer:
The force acting along two surfaces in cozntact which opposes the motion of one body over the other is called the force of friction. It is very important in sports. The larger the area of contact between the surfaces the greater is the force of friction. When both the surfaces are smooth the force of friction reduces to almost zero.
Two types of friction are

1. Static Friction The opposing force that comes into play when one body tends to move over another surface but the actual motion has not yet started.
2. Dynamic Friction It is the friction between two surfaces that are in relative motion with respect to each other. It is the opposing force that comes into play when one body is actually moving over the surface of another body. Dynamic friction may be of two types i.e. sliding friction and rolling friction.

Question 18.
What is friction? Is it advantageous and disadvantageous in the field of games and sports? All Indio 2017
Answer:
Friction is the force acting along two surfaces in contact which opposes the motion of one body over the other. It has very importance in sports. For example when a cricket ball or hockey ball is hit it moves very fast in the direction of force in the ground. After sometimes its motion becomes less and ultimately it comes in static position.

Advantages
Friction has a great significance in the field of sports. Many sports require more friction and other need lesser friction. In some sports we can not give a better performance without friction. For example in athletics the shoes are designed to increase friction so that better speed can be generated.

The spikes have small nails to crease the friction. Gymnasts sometimes use lime on their palms to perform on horizontal bar uneven bars to increase friction. In these sports friction is necessary thus regarded as advantageous.

Disadvantages
On the other hand some games do not require friction. For example the games like snow skiing the skiis are designed to have minimum friction. In cycling there should not be more friction between road and tyres of the cycle. Thus the tyre should be fully inflated to reduce the force of friction. If there is more friction it will be more wastage of energy of the cyclist. Moreover the cyclists use pointed helmets silk body fitted costume and bend their bodies while cycling to reduce air friction.

Swimmers use goggles cap and full body swimsuit to reduce the force of friction caused by water. In roller skating less friction is also needed for better performance. Thus in these games friction is regarded as disadvantageous.

1 Mark Questions
Question.1. Elaborate the term Biomechanics.
Answer. Biomechanics is the science that examines the internal and external forces acting on a human body and the effects produced by these forces.

Question.2. Elucidate projectile motion.
Answer. When a body is thrown at a certain angle with a certain amount of force into the air, it travels in the air and covers some distance following a curved path called a parabola. This is called projectile motion.

Question.3. Define linear motion.
Answer. Linear motion occurs when all the parts of a body move the same distance in the same direction in the same time. The term linear refers to a straight line.

Question.4. Give one most important mechanical difference between walking and running.
Answer. The body is totally airborne for a period of time during running, whereas at least one foot contacts the ground for the whole cycle during walking.

Question.5. Enlist the methods of reducing friction.
Answer. Methods of reducing friction are

1. Polishing surfaces in contact
2. Lubrication
3. Use of ball bearings
4.  Streamlining
5. Changing the type of material used

3 Marks Questions
Question.6. Write the formula for calculating work, energy and power?
Answer.

Question.7. What do you mean by work? If a person applies a force of 10 pounds to an object and displaces it 21 feet, calculate the work done.
Answer. Work is defined as the product of force and the distance through which the object moves in the direction of application of the force.
Applied force = 10 pounds
Displacement = 21 feet Work = Force x Displacement Work = 10 x 21 = 210 ft -lb

Question.8. What is power? What will be the units of power expressed using foot, pound and second? If a weightlifter does 1500 ft-lb of work in raising a barbell overhead and does it for 5 seconds, calculate the power applied by the athlete.
Answer. Power is the rate of doing work or the rate of energy expenditure.

Question.9. Briefly explain at which angle we throw an object to cover the maximum distance.
Answer. Projectile motion refers to the motion of an object projected into the air at an angle. A few examples of this include a soccer ball being kicked, a baseball being thrown or an athlete long jumping.
For covering maximum horizontal distance the thrower must ideally throw the implement at 45° at maximum velocity. However, this angle is generally less than 45° actually depending on the weight of the implement.

Question.10. Enumerate the laws of motion.
Answer. The three Laws of Motion are

1.  Newton’s First Law of Motion This law is also known as law of inertia. This law states that a body at rest will remain at rest and a body in motion will remain in motion at the same speed and in the same direction till any external force is applied on it to change that state.
2.  Newton’s Second Law of Motion This law states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional tathe force producing it and inversely proportional to its mass.
   
3.  Newton’s Third Law of Motion This law states that to every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction.

Question.11. Explain why the angles of release for shot put, javelin and discus throw are different?
Answer. To achieve maximum distance for any of these events, the athlete will have to balance three components – speed, technique and strength. As the angle of release increases, the athlete must expend more energy in overcoming the weight of the object thrown and so less effort is available to develop the release speed of the object. Further, the structure of the body favours a throw in the horizontal direction. As the three objects are differing in weight, the athlete expends different amounts of energy in overcoming their weight. Accordingly, the athlete will release the javelin at a smaller angle of release than the shot put, as the javelin is lighter. The same reason holds for the discus.

Question.12. “Friction is a necessary evil ”. Justify your answer with suitable examples from sport.
Answer. Friction is usually called a necessary evil. It means that it is essential in games and sports. Without friction, we cannot give a better performance in the field of sports. Examples are spikes used by athletes for running and studs used in football boots of the players. However, friction has disadvantages also. In cycling, there should not be more friction between road and the tyres of the cycle.

Question.13. Explain the functioning of Levers.
Answer. The functioning of a lever is characterised by three main parts. These are

1.  The Fulcrum It is the point at which the lever rotates or turns and which identifies the lever class by its position in relation to the other two parts. In human movement, the fulcrum is the joint which dictates the kind of action.
2.  The Force Arm It is the point at which the force is applied.
3.  The Load / Resistance Arm It is the point where the load or resistance is located.

5 Marks Questions
Question.14. Describe the factors affecting the trajectory of a projectile.
Answer. Factors affecting projectile trajectory are

1.  Propelling Force The propelling force produces certain effects depending upon its point and direction of application. If the application is directly through the projectile’s centre of gravity, only linear motion results from the force. As the projecting force is moved further from the centre of gravity, rotatory motion of the object increases at the expense of linear motion. If the force is below the object’s centre of gravity, backspin results. Forward spin results when the force is above the centre of gravity. When the force is off centre to the left, clockwise spin results and when it is off centre to right, counter clockwise spin occurs.
2.  Force of Gravity As soon as contact is broken with a projected object, the force of gravity begins to diminish the upward velocity of the object. Finally, gravity overcomes the effects of the upward component of the projectile’s motion and the object begins to descend. The factors that determine how soon gravity will cause the object to descend are
   (a) weight (mass) of the object
   (b) amount of force driving it upward
   (c) the effect of air resistance on the object.
3. Effect of Air Resistance As the speed of an object increases, air resistance has a greater retarding effect. The more surface area an object presents in the direction of movement, the greater will be the effect of air resistance.

Question.15. Mechanically analyse an athlete walking on the road.
Answer. Walking can be studied in two phases, called as stance phase and swing phase. It proceeds as given below

1. Heel Strike This stage starts the stance phase. It begins when the heel first touches the ground and continues until the complete foot is on the ground.
2.  Early Flat Foot It starts from the moment when the complete foot is on the ground. It occurs when the body’s centre of gravity passes over the top of the toe. The main purpose is to allow the foot to act as a shock absorber.
3. Late Flat Foot This stage starts when the body’s Centre of Gravity passes in front of the neutral position. This stage lasts till when the heel lifts off the ground.
4.  Heel Rise This stage starts when the heel begins to leave the ground. In this stage, the ground forces that go through the foot are very significant.
5.  Toe Off This stage begins when the toes leave the ground completely. This stage continues until the beginning of the swing phase.
6.  Swing Phase This stage starts when one foot is on the ground and the other one in the air. This is shorter than the stance phase.

Question.16. Elucidate the types of friction.
Answer. The force acting along two surfaces in contact which opposes the motion of one body over the other is called the force of friction. It is very important in sports. The larger the area of contact between the surfaces, the greater is the force of friction. When both the surfaces are smooth, the force of friction reduces to almost zero.
Three types of friction are:

1.  Static Friction The opposing force that comes into play when one body tends to move over the another surface but the actual motion has not yet started.
2.  Limiting Friction Limiting friction is the maximum opposing force that comes into play when one body is just on the verge of moving over the surface of another body.
3.  Kinetic Friction Kinetic friction is the opposing force that comes into play when one body is actually moving over the surface of another body.

Question.17. Describe linear and angular motion with their characteristics.
Answer. Linear Motion This occurs when all the parts of a body move the same distance in the same direction in the same time. The term linear refers to straight line motion of a body from one point to another point.

Straight line is defined as the shortest distance between two points.
It can take place in two ways :

1.  Going Straight (Rectilinear) Covering a straight distance.
2. Going in a Curved Path (Curvilinear) It is possible for a body to move along a curved path and still satisfy the conditions of linear motion.
   Angular Motion Also known as rotation, rotatory motion or circular motion. This occurs when a body moves on a circular path about a central line so that all parts of the body move through the same angle in the same direction in the same time.
   
   The central line which lies at right angles to the plane of motion is known as the axis of rotation. It may be physical or imaginary. It also may be inside or outside the body.

Question.18. Discuss the mechanical analysis of Running.
Answer. Running is an important skill in almost every sports event. The mechanics of running are similar in several respects to those of walking. The most notable factors differentiating a run from a walk is the period of double support, which is not present in running.
Running has the following phases:

1.  Swing Phase The swing phase begins with the toe off the ground and ends with the foot landing. Since the body moves faster in running, the leg should move forward with more speed. It is flexed considerably more as compared to walking. The leg’s weight is brought closer to the hip, since the lever is shortened by flexion of the knee, reducing the moment of inertia and increasing the angular velocity.
2.  Support Phase The foot strikes the ground under the knee and under the centre of gravity. The leg strikes the ground with the ball of the foot. During the propulsive action, the vertical components should be kept as small as possible, being just enough to counteract gravity’s downward pulj-so that a great proportion of the force can be used effectively in driving the body forward , rather than be wasted in producing a bouncing run.
   Arms swing must be co-ordinated with the legs to keep the balance of the rotatory effect of the leg swing on the trunk. Since the legs are moving faster, the arms must move faster.

Physical EducationNCERT SolutionsRD Sharma Solutions

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CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Chapter 2 Adventure Sports and Leadership Training

Physical EducationNCERT SolutionsRD Sharma Solutions
1 Mark Questions
Question.1. Define leadership.
Answer. Leadership is the ability to build up confidence and zeal among people and to create an urge in them to be led.

Question.2. Define adventure sports.
Answer. The activities perceived as having a high level of inherent danger or those activities which often involve speed, height, a high level of physical exertion and highly specialised gear are called adventure sports.

Question.3. Explain ‘Abiotic’ resources.
Answer. Abiotic resources are those that come from non-living, non-organic material. For example, land, fresh water, air and heavy metals including ores such as gold, iron, copper and silver etc.

Question.4. What do we mean by Biotic resources?
Answer. Biotic resources are obtained from the biosphere (living and organic material) such as forests and animals and the materials that can be obtained from them. These include coal and petroleum, as they are organic materials.

Question.5. Explain any two objectives of participation in adventure sports, [CBSE 2015 Sample Paper]
Answer. One objective is to develop self confidence, while another objective is to have bonding with nature.

Question.6. Enlist the equipment required for camping. [CBSE 2015 Sample Paper]
Answer. Camping requires a tent or caravan, sleeping bag, flashlight, cooking implements, tools, first aid kit,
hiking boots etc.

Question.7. Write the names of some natural resources.
Answer. Forests, wind, minerals / metal ores, sunlight, rocks, mountains, rivers, atmosphere, aqua culture, navigable channels, fossil fuels like oil and natural gas, soil and wildlife are some natural resources.

3 Marks Questions
Question.8. Elaborate the various leadership qualities one inculcates by participating in adventure sports. [CBSE 2015 Sample Paper]
Answer. Leadership qualities inculcated by participating in adventure sports are decisiveness, friendliness and affection, technical and administrative skill, intelligence, creativity, dedication and : determination, logical decision making, good communication, morality and loyalty, dynamism and energy, teaching skill, good health, high motor capacity, respect for others, interest in research and social skills.

Question.9. List six objectives of adventure sports.
Answer. The objectives of adventure sports are (any six)

1. To develop self confidence.
2. To build concentration.
3. To bond with nature.
4. To face challenges of crisis situations.
5. To properly channelise bodily energy.
6. To provide exhilaration, amusement and excitement.
7. To encourage creativity.
8. To develop mental and physical fitness.
9. To improve social relations.

Question.10. List three features of rock climbing activity.
Answer. Features of rock climbing are (any three)

1. It requires participants to climb on natural rock formations or on artificial rock walls.
2. It is a dangerous sports activity requiring strong mental control, agility, flexibility, endurance and various coordinative activities.
3. Its goal is to reach the apex or summit of a formation without falling.
4. Competitions in this activity are held either to complete a pre-fixed route in the minimum time or to reach the farthest point on a difficult route.
5. Different variations of this sport are termed as free, aided, traditional, sport or top rope climbing, free soloing and bouldering,

Question.11. What are six safety measures to be kept in mind while camping?
Answer. Safety measures to be kept in mind while camping are (any six)

1. Pack a first aid kit for use in emergencies.
2. Before starting for the camping site, go through the weather forecast for the area. At the camp site, watch the sky for changes.
3. Reach the camp site with enough time to check the complete site during day time.
4. Avoid areas of natural hazards for camping.
5. Keep fuel burning appliances like stoves far away from tents.
6. Inside the tents do not use candles or an open flame; instead, use a flashlight.
7. Do not leave waste products in an open area, but recycle them or bury them.
8. Beware when encountering wildlife.
9. Ensure to extinguish completely all fires after use; do not leave any smoldering embers.
10. Beware of poisonous plants, as they may be allergic.

Question.12. What are the different levels of trekking? Describe the levels in one sentence each.
Answer. The four levels of trekking are easy, moderate, strenuous and difficult. Easy trekking is for beginners and does not involve climbing to great heights. Moderate trekking is more energetic and of a duration of about ten days or more. Strenuous trekking involves ascent to heights up to 5000 m and requires some previous trekking experience. Difficult trekking, meant only for the real adventure seekers, may last for over a month.

Question.13. Explain three characteristics of river rafting activity.
Answer. The characteristics of river rafting activity are

1. It involves using a dinghy or raft for navigating fast flowing rivers.
2.  Due to the swift flow and rocks in the river, the passage requires good navigation skill for manoeuvering the raft.
3. It requires great physical and mental toughness to survive the ordeal without accident or injury.

Question.14. What are three advantages of engaging in mountaineering activity?
Answer. Three advantages of engaging in mountaineering activity are

1.  It is one of the finest outdoor opportunities available for lovers of heights.
2. It challenges the individual to display tremendous endurance, agility, strength and. mental patience.
3. It gives the unique experience of putting hands and feet onto rocks and ice to finally reach a summit.

Question.15. How do we distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources? Give one example of each.
Answer. Renewable resources are natural resources whose quantity is not significantly reduced by human consumption, as they get replaced through natural processes. An example of renewable resource is wind energy. Non-renewable resources are replaced very gradually (usually over millions of years) after they have been consumed by humans. An example of non-renewable resource is petroleum oil.

Question.16. List six qualities of an effective leader.
Answer. Qualities of an effective leader are (any six)

1. Decisiveness
2. Possessing coaching and teaching skills
3. Energetic (particularly in physical education / sports)
4. Creative personality
5. Possessing good health
6. Friendly and affectionate
7. Dedicated and determined
8. Having high motor capacity (particularly in physical education / sports)
9.  Having social skills
10. Logical decision maker
11. Loyal and having morality
12. A good communicator

Question.17. What do we mean by conservation of environment? List two steps we should take for conservation of forests.
Answer. Conservation of environment is the balanced and appropriate use of natural resources so that the environment is not significantly affected today and for future generations. It implies sustainable use and management of natural resources.
Two steps which we can take for conservation of forests are

1. Encourage planting of trees
2. Avoiding the use of wood in house construction.

5 Marks Questions
Question.18. Describe five safety measures to be taken while river rafting.
Answer. The safety measures to be taken while river rafting are (any five)

1. Never go on this activity alone. Always have a team of people in the raft.
2. All participants must have adequate capabilities as swimmers, just in case of an accident.
3. Always wear life vest and helmet while participating in this activity.
4. Before starting, check all the equipment to ensure everything is okay. Particularly check the dinghy / raft for any cracks and proper air level.
5. If any participant feels tired, he should not drag his paddle in the water, as it might hit a rock in the river.
6.  Drink plenty of liquids before, during and after the rafting activity, as this activity makes you dehydrated.
7.  End your rafting before darkness falls; if it is getting dark, don’t go for this activity.

Question.19. List five uses of water as a natural resource, in each case indicating how it can be conserved.
Answer. Uses of water as a natural resource are .

1. Using ground water (from wells / tube wells) for crop irrigation. This can be conserved by using sprinklers and drip irrigation method.
2. Use of rain water for multiple needs. By rain water harvesting, this can be used.
3. Reuse waste water flowing from industries after effluent treatment.
4. Using water for domestic needs like drinking, bathing, clothes washing etc. To conserve this, avoid keeping water taps open while brushing teeth, shaving etc. Also check and repair leakage in water taps or pipes.
5. Use of river water for multiple needs. This water must be treated for effluents before being released for irrigation.

Question.20. Explain five methods of conservation of environment which should be employed by persons engaging in adventure sports.
Answer. Methods of conservation of environment which should be employed by persons engaging in adventure sports are

1. Don’t leave leftover eatables or any rubbish by the roadside. Either dispose in a proper dumping place or bury it.
2. Dirty utensils and clothes should not be washed in streams. Collect water in a bucket and wash them with that.
3. Do not leave any non-biodegradable waste products at any place, but bring them back to deposit at waste collection centres or approved dumping sites.
4. Do not defecate or urinate near streams or on river banks.
5. Do not remove or cut trees, herbs or shrubs for burning fires or cooking during your activity.

Question.21. How can physical education create leaders and desirable qualities of leaders in people?
Answer. Leaders in the physical education field need to have both innate and acquired qualities. First and foremost, it is decided who are the people who should be developed as leaders. These are generally the people who have some innate leadership skills. Then those acquired skills are identified for development which this group of persons require. Then these budding leaders are given opportunities for organizing events, tournaments and competitions to develop the required skills. They are observed while performing the necessary actions for successful conclusion of these, all the time being advised on where they are going wrong. In this way, leaders can be created through physical education activities.